Spanish language Q&A Forum

The instructions say to use "indefinido" but the indicitive mood examples use imperfecto. Also, the question asked on the quiz only has imperfecto and futuro simple as options. I went with imperfecto and it was marked correct.

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If the main clause uses a tense that implies a past action, for example El Pretérito Indefinido or El Pretérito Pluscuamperfecto, then the por si/por si acaso clause uses a past tense.

Yo te habría aceptado de nuevo en casa mientras me hubieras contado la verdad.
I would have accepted your return home provided you had told me the truth.

this sentence is talking about future events from the point of view of a past. it is not really talking about future event from current point of view. is that right?

i find this structure similar to si conditional statement of expressing what something could had happened in the past, if another past condition is satisfied. 

may I ask if they are the same?

Yo te habría aceptado de nuevo en casa si me hubieras contado la verdad.

A esto libro le faltan dos paginas. I found this sentence and him confused why we use a with it

I just did an exercise and 'No todavía me he vestido para la fiesta'  was wrong. The correct answer was  'Todavía no me he vestido para la fiesta'.  I don't understand the difference. Help please.

In the test question, "Rafael y Julio son unos chicos muy . . . ," The English translation omits the "some" (unos). I wonder why that was done. Was it to show that "unos" is always added in the given Spanish usage? I would be interested in any corresponding lesson.

Would it also be correct to say...."quién va a hacer el primer movimiento?"?

Can anda and venga be used the same way? Come on!

I have also heard " anda anda!" Is that just for emphasis?