Confusion on direct and indirect object pronouns, supplement to priorOops. The webpage cut out part of my response. Right after I wrote
Hacer + Infinitive, the second paragraph contains;
and here I quoted from the lesson:
.."There is a tendency to use indirect pronouns me,te,le,nos,os,les when the verb in intransitive. However, if the verb is transitive, we usually use direct object pronouns me,te,lo,la,nos,os,los,las.
That's where I asked if this is misprint, or is referring to common mistakes that we make?
The remainder of my comment got posted correctly. Hope that my points are more clear now.
Hola todos
So I can have a better understanding of this subtle distinction between these 3 conjunctions (pero/sino/sino que), can you please confirm if I'm correct in these following 3 examples which all share the same 1st clause:
SINO >>> El médico no me recetó un jarabe __sino__ unas pastillas. (Because simple SUBSTITUTION )
PERO >>> El médico no me recetó un jarabe __pero__ con la condición que lo vea la próxima semana para una revisión. (Because MAKING A LIMITATION to the 1st clause)
SINO QUE >>> El médico no me recetó un jarabe __sino que __ me dijo que necesité una operación . (Because DIFFERENT CONJUGATED VERB IN 2ND CLAUSE)
Hopefully this can clarify these nuances in my head once and for all!
Saldudos y gracias, ~Oscar :)
Should violeta also be on this list?
and when I looked in a spanish (does this have Cap) violet was also given. This might be usual mean not invariable. Or maybe that was giving the meaning. I think giving the meaning. carro had car and cart
Hola Inma,
The translation of the above is given as “Come up here without stepping on the white floor tiles.” This sounds like an imperative, so would it be one of the appropriate conjugations ¡Ve/Vea! etc? Or is it a typo?
Saludos. John
Oops. The webpage cut out part of my response. Right after I wrote
Hacer + Infinitive, the second paragraph contains;
and here I quoted from the lesson:
.."There is a tendency to use indirect pronouns me,te,le,nos,os,les when the verb in intransitive. However, if the verb is transitive, we usually use direct object pronouns me,te,lo,la,nos,os,los,las.
That's where I asked if this is misprint, or is referring to common mistakes that we make?
The remainder of my comment got posted correctly. Hope that my points are more clear now.
Un hecho -
Comó yo mientras Alberto nadó.
pero no??
Comó yo conforme Alberto nadó.
Buenas tardes Shui e Inma ...
It might be worth considering ... >> ?
1. > "As many Irish people emigrated to the United States..." [because that corresponds better with the 'emigraron' in your Spanish translation].
2. [Debatable !] > I first wondered whether "Halloween is really an ancient Irish holiday" might have been more helpful to us, rather than saying "... ancestral..."]... In Castillian, 'ancestral' is indeed sometimes used as a synonym for 'antiguo' - but perhaps there is a very slight difference in Englsh? Eventually, however, I could see that the use of the word 'ancestral' in that context was at least pointing us in the right direction.
When do you and when you don't use el/la/los/las?
I'm totally confused by this and always end up making the wrong choice.
Marcos: Buenos días, Emilio. ¿Tú (preparar) comida para la cena?
Emilio: No, yo necesito limpiar la cocina. ¿Y dónde está Blanca?
Marcos: Ella (oír) música en su dormitorio.
Emilio: Ah bueno ¿Y tú y Tatiana qué hacen?
Marcos: Nosotros (salir) para la biblioteca. ¡Hasta luego!
I saw it in spain and "IT WAS WONDERFUL". Shouldn't it be in Imperfecto because we are kind of giving description here of how it was. But it was marked wrong. It was "fue marvillosos" . Please answer???
When a noun is used to describe the weather, hacer is used but when an adjective or participle is used then the verb is estar: En otoño, hace viento -v- en otoño está ventoso.
Pero why is ser used for: en otoño es incomodo? Or should it be está?
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