Always using the definite article with what you are good (or bad) atI have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
Does ¨reírse de¨ just means laughing at someone with ¨mockery¨ meaning, or it has another meaning?
Thank u so much
Can anda and venga be used the same way? Come on!
I have also heard " anda anda!" Is that just for emphasis?
It says that the correct answer is "QUERÍAMOS". I don't understand why you don't use "quisimos". We wanted to help and actually did help, so it is a completed action.
"An impersonal statement in Spanish, e.g. "Es bueno que...", "Es importante que..." can be followed by the infinitive", no está correcta, según se puede leer más abajo en el texto.
In an A1 writing exercise about ordering at a restaurant, I encountered the phrase "How can I help you?" with the hint "Lit. What do you wish?" I was not prepared with an answer so I learned a new phrase!
Are the phrases interchangeable?
Thank you,
Allysen
Why is there so much inconsistency with questions of this type? "Son" was marked incorrect an an answer though it translates to 'The product in this store are plastic" yet a very similar question today of "De qué _______ esa escultura?" has "es" as an allowed alternate even though escultura is a feminine noun. Regarding this first question, is there a significant difference between (being plastic) and (being made of plastic) that we're supposed to know?
I have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
Trick questions like this one don't help and no one is going to put that adjective in front of axe in Spanish. Smh. I like this web site but the way you guys format questions is really annoying at times. The questions should reflect how a native is MOST LIKELY to say something, not "well let's mess with these people trying to learn a language and confuse them at the same time."
Would you please complete the lesson by commenting on whether they can ever be mixed? In the event I do, am I totally wrong? Thanks.
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