Still confusedThis still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:
However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.
Again quoting from the lesson:
There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.
Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.
Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.
This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.
Please explain.
Estoy wondering que es la differencia entre Español spoken ayer than in Latin American. I know “ll” is a hard L ( ama-re-lia) instead of a soft double LL as used in la palabra “amarillo” in Latin America. What are some other differences?
Would it also be correct to say...."quién va a hacer el primer movimiento?"?
In the lesson on haber plus participio it has leídos not leído.
Hello, in last weeks B1 written weekend workout, this sentence was presented as the correct answer
"y dejé el resto de mis cosas guardadas en la taquilla"
I am trying to work out the verb and tense for "guardadas", but it has defeated me. I know it's somthing to do with "guardar" but the configuration isn't familiar to me.
Thanks
Es lo mismo igual que/ tan como, se asemejan y se pueden utilizar.
Tan rojas como las cerezas/ rojas igualnque las cerezas, es el mismo significado, e. El mismo tiempo.
I see in this lesson that when the subject is the same, we should be using the infinitive. I need to work on that!
Is it ever a “tolerable” error among native speakers to commit this mistake when using a colloquial register? I frequently want to say things like “Dudo que (yo) pueda hacerlo para viernes” instead of “poder hacerlo.” I know you’re here to teach us the right way!! Just curious as to “how” wrong it is.
This still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:
However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.
Again quoting from the lesson:
There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.
Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.
Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.
This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.
Please explain.
se encuentra en el sur de España, cerca del Mediterranean Sea - I wrote this for the first sentence “it is located at the south of Spain, near to the Mediterranean Sea”. My questions are: is se encuentra accepted? And how do we know if we should write it as a name for Mediterranean Sea or as El mar Mediterráneo? And does qué exclamation sentences always in plural? Thanks
Hola,
As a matter of interest, what would the difference in meaning be if 'por' were substituted for 'para'.
The online translator I use says that they are the same.
Gracias.
Colin
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