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Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,924 questions • 9,691 answers • 981,397 learners
Por qué en la primera oración “ que por qué”?
For the final section (i.e., "to enjoy the evening") the hint was "disfrutar (de)". I do not understand the significance of "de" as a hint for that segment of the sentence. Why was "(de)" part of the hint? I was completely thrown off by that "hint".
Pati Ecuamiga
La vendimia comienza en el antiguo Egipto. Por qué no el pretérito comenzó?
Yo habría ido a la entrevista si ________ un salario más decente.
I put "me hubieran ofrecido", but apparently that was wrong and "me" is not needed
Why?
Hace mucho frío en Canadá.
I don't understand why " mucho" is used here.
I read from the other answers that common names such as Juan and proper nouns such as movie are unable to use direct object pronouns.
Example - lo he visto pelicula is wrong but he visto pelicula is correct?
Example - lo he visto a Juan is wrong but he visto a Juan or lo he visto is correct?
how about el pelicula de Pedro lo he visto
or
he visto el pelicula de Pedro?
Thanks in advance
Question on why the final bit "we were a little dizzy" should be conjugated in imperfect rather than simple past. I imagined that one moment in time when "we were dizzy" should be the opposite. I get that estar is often conjugated in imperfect, but this seems a lot like one moment that's no longer taking place, encapsulated in the past, not continuing and not one that lasted long (given that "we were *a little* dizzy.") Help please?
To say sth is protected, are está and es interchangeable or is one preferred than the other?
Why the speaker can see him/herself in this time frame? It's obvious that the speaker is talking about someone else.
Thank u so much
II want to know the name of the wordthat goes with haber to form phrases dado estado etc
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