Still confusedThis still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:
However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.
Again quoting from the lesson:
There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.
Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.
Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.
This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.
Please explain.
Why the speaker can see him/herself in this time frame? It's obvious that the speaker is talking about someone else.
Thank u so much
How is recién different from ya? Are they interchangeable?
"Suelo ir al gimnasio todos los días, ________ soy socio.
I usually go to the gym every day because I am a member."
One of the options here was "por". Is there a reason that would not be correct? It seems like "por" "que" and "porque" all mean pretty much the same thing.
This still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:
However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.
Again quoting from the lesson:
There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.
Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.
Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.
This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.
Please explain.
This might be way off base, but while "I" (or "yo") is the most common personal pronoun in most all languages, when one combines "it", "he", "she" and "este" etc followed by nouns, the third person singular is the most commonly used conjugation. In Kwiziq quizzes and exercises, it seems that "yo" and "tu" are the ones that show up most often. The exercises would be better if they had a proportional focus on the pronouns/conjugations in line with how frequently they are used in real life.
I read from the other answers that common names such as Juan and proper nouns such as movie are unable to use direct object pronouns.
Example - lo he visto pelicula is wrong but he visto pelicula is correct?
Example - lo he visto a Juan is wrong but he visto a Juan or lo he visto is correct?
how about el pelicula de Pedro lo he visto
or
he visto el pelicula de Pedro?
Thanks in advance
This article is extremely confusing. One of your examples is Voy a salir aunque llueva and you use the subjunctive in the next example—llueve but your translation is the same!? Aunque + subjunctive seems like it should be translated as even if, implying either they don’t know if it is raining or they are talking about a time in the future. Aunque + indicative translates as even though and implies a known fact. I am going out in spite of knowing that it is raining. The talk about shared or background information is something I have never heard before
Hello! I wrote: 'tengo viente años' to say that I'm 20 years old. It marked me as incorrect, but the only difference I can see between my answer and the correct one is capitalisation. Is there something I'm missing?
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