Still confusedThis still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:
However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.
Again quoting from the lesson:
There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.
Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.
Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.
This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.
Please explain.
How can I get private Spanish lessons?
Why is the participle sujeta and not sujeto?
What other kinds of quizzes would you like to see on this site? One issue that I have encountered in the 'self-test' quizzes is that I can lazily rely on getting the answer by knowing that I'm going to get a question on a recent grammar point, etc, which means I'm not really thinking with any great depth, only assuming that the answer will be in reference to a recent lesson. For example, if I've just learned that por can refer to 'approximate location' I will know that that is going to be the answer when I encounter that kind of question (which might be amongst several conjugation type questions so will be even more obvious). I think the best way to address this is for the site to offer more general thematic quizzes to help consolidate certain points. For example, there could be a quiz on Por v Para which you could take after Stage A2. I would add these to the library as 'Consolidation Exercises'. Unfortunately, I think that our brains will always take the easiest route to the answer which isn't always the best way to learn.
Hola Inma,
"se originó en la región de Río de la Plata"
My answer was:
fue originado en la región de Río de la Plata.
No entiendo la diferencia. ¿Me podrías explicar?
Saludos
Ελισάβετ
My amiga de Oaxaca pointed out that in Spain they tend to use "lo" in this expression but in Mexico it's "la." Just sayin'!
According to my dictionary, the word órgano is masculine, but the text has "una órgano."
"Suelo ir al gimnasio todos los días, ________ soy socio.
I usually go to the gym every day because I am a member."
One of the options here was "por". Is there a reason that would not be correct? It seems like "por" "que" and "porque" all mean pretty much the same thing.
How would the the Lawless Spanish staff recommend that learners practice conjugations?
Couldn’t “decorate it for yourself” also be a correct choice if the implied pronoun/antecedent is “usted?”
I can’t see why “usted” wouldn’t be as valid as “él/ella/ellos/ellas” for this construction.
This still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:
However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.
Again quoting from the lesson:
There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.
Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.
Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.
This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.
Please explain.
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level