Gerund vs present continuousHi. I'm a big fan of this site, for many reasons, so I am pointing this out in a spirit of collaboration, not criticism: I think this page should refer to "present continuous" and "present participles", not gerunds.
The gerund is a form, derived from a verb, which ends in --ing, but it is the noun from the verb. This page is all about an alternative verb form.
For example: "Smoking is bad for you."
"Smoking" is a gerund, as it has become a noun.
"That man is smoking" is the present continuous form of the verb. "Smoking" in this sentence is the present participle, i.e. not a gerund.
I am prepared to accept that this might be a US/UK English thing; I'd be very interested to hear if this were the case.
Best wishes
Andrew Wenger
I read elsewhere that when quedar is used to express the idea of ending up in an emotional or physical state, it does not require reflexive pronoun. Is this accurate ? So if I have a scenario of 2 persons fighting and the one of them left a mark on the second and it left him standing still from the shock. Do we use ‘se queda inmóvil’ or ‘queda inmóvil’ ?
Hola,
As a matter of interest, what would the difference in meaning be if 'por' were substituted for 'para'.
The online translator I use says that they are the same.
Gracias.
Colin
For the final section (i.e., "to enjoy the evening") the hint was "disfrutar (de)". I do not understand the significance of "de" as a hint for that segment of the sentence. Why was "(de)" part of the hint? I was completely thrown off by that "hint".
Pati Ecuamiga
Is "Todos mis amigos hacen las compras aquí" a possible alternative to "Todos mis amigos compran aquí"?
Now everywhere I look online it suggests that this should only say 'lo dejé' and not 'me lo dejé'. Why would they add 'me'? It doesn't feel like it needs it, as the 'I forgot' bit is understood by dejé, and the 'it' by lo. It isn't reflexive I don't think.
Thanks!
Why does sentence need A at the beginning? (The other examples don’t have it).
Thanks very much
Shirley
I thought that Os was the pronoun for vosotros in this lesson so now I am confused how to use Os since it is not used in Mexico and the lesson did not explain it. I appreciate your help with this
Hi. I'm a big fan of this site, for many reasons, so I am pointing this out in a spirit of collaboration, not criticism: I think this page should refer to "present continuous" and "present participles", not gerunds.
The gerund is a form, derived from a verb, which ends in --ing, but it is the noun from the verb. This page is all about an alternative verb form.
For example: "Smoking is bad for you."
"Smoking" is a gerund, as it has become a noun.
"That man is smoking" is the present continuous form of the verb. "Smoking" in this sentence is the present participle, i.e. not a gerund.
I am prepared to accept that this might be a US/UK English thing; I'd be very interested to hear if this were the case.
Best wishes
Andrew Wenger
What is the origin of the curious fact that certain Spanish words that end in "-a" and can refer to both male and female persons, never developed an "-o" ending to denote a male individual specifically? For example:
electricista, dentista, recepcionista.
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