Confusion over when definite article use is necessaryI just completed a translation exercise which included the following sentence:
"... we see the fireworks and we receive gifts from Father Christmas."
I translated the sentence as follows: "... vemos los fuegos artificiales y recibimos regalos desde Papá Noel". Kwiziq indicated that the correct translation should have been "... vemos los fuegos artificiales y recibimos los regalos de Papá noel."
I have two question about this:
1) Why was it necessary to insert "los" in front of "regalos"? I do not understand fully the rule of when the definite articles (singular or plural) must be used. As you can see, I inserted it when "the" was included before "fireworks" in the English translation, but omitted "los" when "the" was not included before "gifts" in the English translation. Again, what's the rule on this? When I practice the writing exercises seems use of articles is hit and miss.
2) I am confused about why "de" was used as translation of "from" instead of "desde". Seems "regalos de Papá Noel" would translate in English to Santa Claus's gifts. Please explain.
Thank you!
Pati Ecuamiga.
In the example:
Nuestra ayuda está dirigida a jóvenes sin empleo. Estas son personas que han acabado sus estudios y no han encontrado trabajo.
why is it "Estas" and not "Estos"? Doesn't this pronoun need to agree with "jóvenes" rather than "personas"?
I think the names should probably be the same.
Instead of al comienzos?
I just reviewed the A1 lesson on veces/vez in which "sometimes" equals "algunas veces," but in examples above, "sometimes" equals "a veces." Is there a difference? Is "a veces" simply a more convenient way of saying "algunas veces?" Thank you.
I haven't seen this use of "que" before.
Ya son las tres. Andando, que llegamos tarde. It's 3 already. Let's get a move on, we're late.
¡Corriendo que nos mojamos! Hurry up, we're getting wet!
I like this. Is there a lesson on it?
So, how does Portuguese get into the mix of official languages? Is there a native African language first and then Spanish? And the French?
When using "a tan solo de que", is the verb in the subordinate clause in the subjunctive?
Shouldn't it be 'casas colgandas?' since it is used as an active form as in english 'hanging'?
I just completed a translation exercise which included the following sentence:
"... we see the fireworks and we receive gifts from Father Christmas."
I translated the sentence as follows: "... vemos los fuegos artificiales y recibimos regalos desde Papá Noel". Kwiziq indicated that the correct translation should have been "... vemos los fuegos artificiales y recibimos los regalos de Papá noel."
I have two question about this:
1) Why was it necessary to insert "los" in front of "regalos"? I do not understand fully the rule of when the definite articles (singular or plural) must be used. As you can see, I inserted it when "the" was included before "fireworks" in the English translation, but omitted "los" when "the" was not included before "gifts" in the English translation. Again, what's the rule on this? When I practice the writing exercises seems use of articles is hit and miss.
2) I am confused about why "de" was used as translation of "from" instead of "desde". Seems "regalos de Papá Noel" would translate in English to Santa Claus's gifts. Please explain.
Thank you!
Pati Ecuamiga.
In the lesson on using perfecto vs indefinido, above the "tip block", the term "El Preterito Perfecto" is used twice. Probably the second use is an oversight.
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