Spanish language Q&A Forum

1) Why is imperfecto used: Pues que me apetecía .  She was feeling like at the moment, not an ongoing  feeling no?

2) y entre ellos había una pareja de jóvenes.. Why is the imperfecto used in this aspect?  The couple were only there AT that time, it's NOT a habitual or repetitive action that they are there every time shes at the beach? 

3) ¡No me lo podía creer! , why use the imperfecto here?

4) Después me di cuenta de que en ese grupo había un hombre haciendo fotos y un chico con un foco. Entonces comprendí que los jóvenes eran modelos y estaban trabajando en una sesión de fotos    The imperfecto used is because it's sequential? 

5) Estoy segura de que estaban muertos de frío.   The models were ONLY cold at that moment, why not "estuvieron muertos de trio"

6) . El solo llevaba un bañador y ella un bikini.   Why not just "Llevaron" they don't wear a bikini or beach short every time they go to the beach?  Only at that moment for the photo shoot?

Thank You in advance !

When do you use “de bajo de” versus just “bajo” for under? Also why does lobster not have the definite article? Thanks.

Are there more than 2 practice questions somewhere for each lesson? 

Can you sometimes omit the first subjunctive and just use e.g lo que sea instead of sea lo que sea ? Ive read some texts online and they don't seem to write the full version, does it have slightly different nuance/meaning?

I am confused- the present participle in English is used in both the despues de + infinitive and the gerundio.  It’s hard to differentiate between the two in English so it’s guesswork in Spanish…

Although the note on the question suggests the imperfect of Poder I think the translation should use the conditional, Podría rather than podía

It seems like one of the quiz questions and the examples you give for past participles use the pretérito perfecto for what should be the pretérito indefinido as translated from English. Examples: we wouldn’t say I’ve written to my girlfriend if we wanted to say I wrote to my girlfriend or I’ve returned from work for I returned from work. Please explain why the perfecto is used in the statements and not the indefinido. 

In this sentence from the exercise: "Él es muy famoso, expone en muchas galerías y museos y tiene muchos premios."

The word "muchas" is feminine, but since it seems to include "museos" I was thinking it might be "muchos". Is it a rule that the first in a series determines the gender, or was this done to say "many galleries and (some) museums"?

I think this lesson should be in a C1 category as it is very subtle. I just cannot see the difference in the  meaning of the first two sentences,,,,estoy&esté. Maybe you could provide better examples or explanations on this point of grammar