Spanish language Q&A Forum

I read elsewhere that when quedar is used to express the idea of ending up in an emotional or physical state, it does not require reflexive pronoun. Is this accurate ? So if I have a scenario of 2 persons fighting and the one of them left a mark on the second and it left him standing still from the shock. Do we use ‘se queda inmóvil’ or ‘queda inmóvil’ ?

"Cuando ella abra sus regalos en navidad a menudo tiene perfume."

This seems to describe something that has already happened many times.  So why is it subjunctive "abra" 

In the test question, "Rafael y Julio son unos chicos muy . . . ," The English translation omits the "some" (unos). I wonder why that was done. Was it to show that "unos" is always added in the given Spanish usage? I would be interested in any corresponding lesson.

In the lesson it says convertirse en and hacerse can both be used to talk about a career change with the former indicating a more drastic change. However in the quiz both answers are listed (for a sentence about a career change) but only hacerse is marked as being correct. 

Can you give advice/commands in Spanish with the conditional form of deber/tener que?

In this lesson I see:

If you like those earrings, you should buy them.

Si ellos son los responsables, deberían pagar.

If they are responsible, they should pay.

These are advice/commands. 

There is also the other lesson "Si [if] followed by present indicative + main clause [command/request/advise]".

What is the point then of this lesson?

I don't feel like there is good guidance in this.  I see what appears to be mixed modes- Mi and ti, but not nos- it's nosotros.  If nosotros is the valid pronoun for this form, why is ti valid and tu not valid? There is no guidance here and I am constantly getting these screwed up.  To me, nosotros=we, nos=us, and nuestra=our.  I get it if they truly use those in that way, but please call it out as an exception so I know to memorize it that way.  Otherwise I am trying to find and fit a pattern and am hitting the wall trying to pass these tests in a way that I know I can replicate this in a week or a month from now and get it correctly then as well, and not just memorize it long enough to pass the test today.

Would it be helpful to explain this way? 

sentado/a(s) = seated; tumbado/a(s) = laid?

This still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:

However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.

You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.

Again quoting from the lesson:

There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.

Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.

Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.

This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.

Please explain.