Spanish language Q&A Forum

I don't understand why "Ya había"  + participle  is not a correct answer in both cases. Looking at the examples it seems it is a possible answer.

I came across a sentence in a book I was reading and it said, 

"ya no se sienten ganas de beber"

I understand "ganas" as a noun meaning that they are stating they do not have the "desire" to drink I think. 

Why is sentirse used instead of sentir when "ganas" is the direct object?

Thank you

I have noticed in general that spanish speakers have different intonations at the end of sentences or part of sentences which confuse the listener and in dictations result in incorrect  punctuation. 

As an extremely well-educated native North American speaker trying to learn Latin American Spanish, I find the semantics in this lesson frustrating. This is punctuated by all the comments seen here. There is insufficient context provided. For example (ignoring the hint since hints aren't given in real life), one of the quiz questions asks to translate: "They are having ice cream." I would immediately think "Están tomando helado." - or perhaps "desfrutando" given some of the loose lesson translations. However, to think: "Van a tomar helado." I need further context. For example: "They are having ice cream this afternoon." - "Van a tomar helado esta tarde." Otherwise in English you are much less ambivalent saying: "They are going to have ice cream." I understand both sides of the arguments and I fall more on the side of "They are going to have," but a better solution is to provide a more complete explanation and context in the lesson, after all, it is more common to say "They are going to have." Concede that we use the exact same literal expression in both Spanish and English but then take it further in the lesson to explain the nuanced differences in English thought compared to Spanish thought.