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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,773 questions • 9,426 answers • 939,196 learners
The following two sentences use the indirect pronoun 'le' before the verb. Why is 'le' necessary in these cases? Is it considered incorrect if it's removed? Examples with and without 'le' are below.
1. Tú les das vino a mis abuelos.
2. Ella le muestra un sombrero nuevo al hombre.
I've heard native speakers omitting 'le' in similar sentence constructions, but I'm unsure if it's correct to do so or not.
1. Tú das vino a mis abuelos.
2. Ella muestra un sombrero nuevo al hombre.
Hola
Why is the imperfect subjunctive used, as it is not a repeated or continued action?
Many thanks
el pez
el juez
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Is there a rule for using the definite article in Spanish? It often trips me up. It doesn’t always follow the same pattern as English, eg in Castles text: …visitar castillos (no ‘los’, where in English there would be no ‘the’), but then:… la historia de los castillos medievales (in the English version there is no ‘the’, the history of medieval castles; the history of the medieval castles is not incorrect it just has a different meaning). Maybe, as in English, it’s very much about common usage and there’s no absolute rule.?
In the explanatory pop-up for "Como se prepara una tortilla de patatas:" https://progress.lawlessspanish.com/revision/grammar/expressing-instructions-and-general-statements-with-the-impersonal-se-one.
I'll spend some time on this exercise because I find these uses of "se" to be very interesting.
Also this was my first encounter with "echa/echan." There does not appear to be a lesson dedicate to its conjugation, but there is this which seems to be sufficient: https://progress.lawlessspanish.com/revision/grammar/expressing-instructions-and-general-statements-with-the-impersonal-se-one.
Too often I have found the “hints” to be problematic in that I am thrown off by them. For example, in this lesson one hint was “Lit: "At 2 I have lunch with dehydrated foods" lunch = almuerzo, foods = alimentos." Assuming “Lit” means “literally”, the literal translation should have been “A las dos tengo almuerzo con alimentos deshidratados” NOT “tomo” or “como”. I do know that "tomar" is used when referring to food, but the so-called "hint" threw me off on this one!
Pat Ecuamiga
Can you give advice/commands in Spanish with the conditional form of deber/tener que?
In this lesson I see:
Si te gustan esos pendientes, deberías comprarlos.If you like those earrings, you should buy them.
Si ellos son los responsables, deberían pagar.
If they are responsible, they should pay.
These are advice/commands.
There is also the other lesson "Si [if] followed by present indicative + main clause [command/request/advise]".
What is the point then of this lesson?
Hi Inma,
I know that the answer for;
No voy a ir a esa fiesta, por si acaso ________ con David
is 'me encontrara' (not 'me encuentre') because it is subjunctive imperfect but is the future subjunctive not used in this case because the sentence is conditional?
Thank you
Could we use "el" in this context? No possessive is used with body parts; it seemed that a constitution is a part of government, and not "owned" by it.
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