Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the phrase "... procede del vocablo latín" you have used a noun ["latín"].  Shouldn't it be an adjective? > "... procede del vocablo latino" ?

Is there a general rule about when the definite article must be used? Eg, in this exercise why does ‘fortuna’ not have one while abundancia, prosperidad and economía do?

I know that this construction (using cómo si + indicative to express indifference) is common in colloquial speech.  My question:  Is this a currently officially excepted grammatical construction by the RAE?  I found one source that says that the RAE says that this construction is common but must be considered incorrect.  But I am not sure if I’m looking at the most appropriate or most updated source.

Hello

 when we use para que we need to use subjuntivo imperfecto e indicativo, 

Probably better [in the English original] to say "If you ever travel to Bogotá ..." - [rather than "... traveled ..."].

I have always thought that cualquiera meant whatever (or whichever), as in “Choose whatever book you want”, and I have always used it that way. After reading through this lesson, I still think that lol.

What did you mean when you wrote the tip "The full set of six forms is used with the past participles of another verb to form another tense, El Futuro Perfecto, for example..."?

I'm a little confused on what you mean by that, so if you can please explain it to me or give an example, I would greatly appreciate it.