Spanish language Q&A Forum

Would it be incorrect to say, "No me gustan los tatuajes y por eso no tengo nada" instead of ninguno?

While i was doing the exercise ,the suggested answer was "Para ver las fotos o los videos", but here without articles? In this sentence, should we use las/los or not?

Do all ordinal numbers ending in 1/3 undergo the change? I understand the first word will not  (decimoprimero or  vigésimo tercero  will  NOT be decimprimero or vigésim tercero),, BUT  the second (primero/tercero) does?? 

Ex/ decimoprimer.

vigésimo tercer

Hi, my initial thought was that we would rather use an article before the noun in the following sentence: "...que el candidato conozca el derecho internacional". Could you please explain?

Lesson = Me gusta viajar en tren.  Why not gusto?  I like = gusto, right?  Also, pretty much the same question for the use of cuesta, not cuesto in this lesson. Aren't they referring to the (masculine) ticket (el billete)?  I have a feeling I am missing something covered in our lessons!  

(As always, thank you for your help)

I just took one of the B1 quizes and I got this one wrong:

La había comprado para sus padres. ________ la había comprado. (He'd bought it for his parents. He'd bought it for them.)

It says the answer is "Se la habia comprado." I put "Por ellos, la había comprado."

Is it ever correct to "por" whoever, instead of "se"?

It sounds more natural to me to say "La había comprado por ellos," rather than "Se lo había comprado." It also seems clearer because "ellos" is specific (them), where as "se" could be you, him, them...

Is that wrong? Less common? Common only in certain countries or situations?

In this sentence: “La mayoría de sus calles no tienen nombre.”

If the sentence means “the majority of its streets don’t have names”, why is nombre singular and not plural?

If the sentence means : “the majority of its streets don’t have a name”, why is the indefinite article “un” not used for “a”?