Spanish language Q&A Forum

I answered ‘quizá me esté enamorando’ and the suggested corrections were ‘quizás’ (even though I know they’re interchangeable) and ‘estoy’. From what I understand the indicative and subjunctive are interchangeable after quizás - so just want to clarify if my answer is acceptable or if something is off about it?

"la agencia" is singular. So why "tienen" coches. What not "tiene". Is this just the (poor) way people speak? For example they refer to a team as "they" instead of "it"?

Why is it incorrect to say "espero que no tomen muchas fotos....."? Or, why is it only correct to use sacar in the subjunctive?

Why is the imperfect, "tenía que" used instead of maybe the subjunctive "tenga que" or the conditional "tendría que"? In the story it's an action she hasn't yet done, no?

Do all numbers ending in 1 and 3 (11, 13, 21, 23, 31, 33) change when before masc sing nouns?  Or just for 1 and 3

I just took one of the B1 quizes and I got this one wrong:

La había comprado para sus padres. ________ la había comprado. (He'd bought it for his parents. He'd bought it for them.)

It says the answer is "Se la habia comprado." I put "Por ellos, la había comprado."

Is it ever correct to "por" whoever, instead of "se"?

It sounds more natural to me to say "La había comprado por ellos," rather than "Se lo había comprado." It also seems clearer because "ellos" is specific (them), where as "se" could be you, him, them...

Is that wrong? Less common? Common only in certain countries or situations?

I don’t understand the use of quedarse in this sentence: “me quedé gratamente sorprendido”. It means I was pleasantly surprised. Why not use a form of estar in the preterite to express surprise? Unless this is a phrase used or has another meaning? I thought quedarse meant to stay. Thanks!

Why is it not an option to say "en caso de que tengas paladar dulce"?

En la frase: será colorear en un cuaderno que tenga figuras en blanco, por qué se necesita tenga en lugar de tiene?