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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,932 questions • 9,702 answers • 983,865 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,932 questions • 9,702 answers • 983,865 learners
¡Buenas noches!
I'm trying to find out why "we don't have a fixed-price menu" is translated as "no tenemos menĂş" without the article ("un"?) and I can't find this out anywhere online! Would you be able to explain if there is a rule? Also, why is the title given as "reservar mesa" rather than "reservar una mesa"?
Many thanks!
En la frase: será colorear en un cuaderno que tenga figuras en blanco, por qué se necesita tenga en lugar de tiene?
Hi, my question is regarding the quiz item:
Pedro is going to start thinking [and continue thinking] that we're silly.
Pedro se va a quedar pensando que somos dos tontas.
Are there other possibilities for the position of the "se" ?  In particular, I'm wondering about these:
Pedro va a quedarse pensando que somos dos tontas.
Pedro va a quedar pensándose que somos dos tontas.
If either of those is grammatically correct, is there any difference in meaning/tone/frequency of usage?
Thanks!
Asà como en los deportes, donde necesitamos practicar hasta obtenermos mejores resultados, también es asà con los idiomas. Devemos practicar hasta alcanzarnos nuestro objetivo que es hablar, charlar, comunicarnos. Asà como en los deportes, debemos siempre mantener nuestra motivácion hacia nuestro objetivo.
The answer given is “han tomado”. I don’t think tomado has been covered. I thought it should be tĂmido. Can you please explain?
Por qué hay una coma entre y otra coma después de ?
Are the ending masculine -os or feminine -as based on the noun in the sentence or the adjective of the sentence?
Very often in Spanish you see statements expressed both with or without the reflexive particle. Is there a difference in nuance?, I am wondering. For example, comĂ la torta vs. me comĂ la torta; murĂo mi mamá el año pasado vs. se murĂo mi mamá el año pasado...etc., etc. Is this discussed anywhere?
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In the chart in the lesson, the meaning of "bueno" before the noun is listed as "simple/good" which implies that "buen hombre" could mean "simple man", which seems unlikely.  Is this a typo ?  Maybe the chart is meant to say that "bueno" before the noun means "simply good" ?
Thanks!
I have very recently learned about Spanish subjunctive verbs. They seem most difficult to use. Hopefully I can learn a pattern as to how to use them properly. Will anyone on this site be able to guide me?
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