Spanish language Q&A Forum

Why is the imperfect, "tenía que" used instead of maybe the subjunctive "tenga que" or the conditional "tendría que"? In the story it's an action she hasn't yet done, no?

I just took one of the B1 quizes and I got this one wrong:

La había comprado para sus padres. ________ la había comprado. (He'd bought it for his parents. He'd bought it for them.)

It says the answer is "Se la habia comprado." I put "Por ellos, la había comprado."

Is it ever correct to "por" whoever, instead of "se"?

It sounds more natural to me to say "La había comprado por ellos," rather than "Se lo había comprado." It also seems clearer because "ellos" is specific (them), where as "se" could be you, him, them...

Is that wrong? Less common? Common only in certain countries or situations?

Would it be incorrect to say, "No me gustan los tatuajes y por eso no tengo nada" instead of ninguno?

I don’t understand the use of quedarse in this sentence: “me quedé gratamente sorprendido”. It means I was pleasantly surprised. Why not use a form of estar in the preterite to express surprise? Unless this is a phrase used or has another meaning? I thought quedarse meant to stay. Thanks!

Why "de donde *eres*" for informal but "de donde *es* usted" for formal? 

Son muy populares los siguientes platos:  The following dishes are very important

I am confused as to why this sentence is ordered in this way. Why does Los siguientes platos precede son muy populares?

thanks 

I thought you don't need to use the personal a with animals although it's commonly used with pets. Is that so? So couldn't it be "vio los elefantes"?

En verdad no hay cartas horizontales, sino hay cartas colocadas horizontalmente. me suena mejor usar el adverbio que un adjetivos.