Spanish language Q&A Forum

En "Castañas asadas" (fill-in-the-blanks) ocurre el cambio de tiempo verbal (compartiríamos mientras conversamos/saldríamos ... mientras comemos). Por qué?

At a general level, should I expect that the Ustedes form of a conjugation will be identical to the Ellos/Ellas forms in Latam conjugation? Can I expect this similarity to only apply to certain tenses? 

In some of these sentences it seems that para would work just as well, for example, in the following: Por [eso/aquello de] no tener que pelar las gambas con las manos decidió pedir mejor calamares fritos.

This might be a sensitive question, but if the García family consists of a widowed mother and three daughters, would we say “Las García” or would we still consider the father to be a part of the family in a legacy sesnse?  How about in the case of divorce?  Thanks.

I believe these were prompts etc for Spain and not LatAM... You had asked me to give you specifics:  Kwizbot gave me a very "Castilian" (Spain) hint with la mar de. It’s a colorful, slightly informal way to say "extremely" or "a lot of."

These two goals are going to be extremely difficult to achieve,

goal = objetivo, extremely = la mar de

Also this sentence:

but it is all about getting down to it and getting used to it. 

Kwizbot: pero todo es ponerse a ello y acostumbrarse. 

I was tempted to use "se trata de"... and found out that a person in Mexico or Colombia would likely say that specific sentence:

"...pero se trata de ponerse ….

Also this sentence:

 she could take a trip to some special place 

Kwizbot: 

ella podría dedicarse un viaje a algún sitio especial

You

ella podría hacer un viiaje en algún sitio especialIn Latin America, you are far more likely to hear "hacer un viaje" or even "tomar un viaje."