Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,073 questions • 9,948 answers • 1,033,348 learners
Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,073 questions • 9,948 answers • 1,033,348 learners
En la última frase, por qué se escribe "sería cumplir..."? A mi no tiene sentido. No sería mejor decir: "Ser escritora cumpliría mi mayor sueño"?
This seems similar to the Se accidental construction with the exception that the action is happening directly to the object instead of indirectly. In both instances the action seems to be unattributable.
Is the se here like the accidental se? Is there a broader pattern here that I am missing? Are there a set number of pronomial verbs that follow this structure? Usually when I see Se at the end of a verb I think, okay this needs to be used reflexively, se and the verb agree with each other and are usually variable and not fixed in the singular/plural third person or paired with an indirect pronoun as in this lesson. Does the verb being transitive or intransitive have any bearing on the use of the indirect object pronouns?
Thanks,
Devin
Diría: “The ones that have failed all the subjects, will have to repeat this year.” Las dos traducciones son bastantes distintas: suspendido todos o suspendido uno.
I had the following "En España no siempre dormimos siesta" and I looked it up and AI said the response with siesta at the end is somewhat awkward and less native is that correct?
One example drives me crazy (again). When to use pero or sino que.
Example: Luis y yo no hemos terminado, ....... decidimos darnos un tiempo para pensar en lugar de tener que romper.
My answer = pero, because it is correct and I asked as well native speaker and they would use pero.
Strict rules instead of colloquialism @kwiziq?
In 99% of all cases pero is correct but not in Kwiziq.
Would it be possible to rate the answer as correct but add a hint stating that the strict rules would rate differently?
Thanks,
bernd
The examples make sense of using, ex: tuviera, because the subject “had” something in the past. However, I’m confused by the test question because I don’t see a reference to the past. The sentence is “I hope i have a son by the time im 33.” I understand Ojalá triggers the subjunctive but I don’t see the connection to the last and therefore don’t understand why “tuviera” was the correct answer. I only selected it because it was the only subjunctive response.
No hay nada sobre de uvas en esta historia, pero me gusto mucho.
Marta va ___ cine con su novio.
(Marta is going to the cinema with her boyfriend.) [one, some or all may be correct]: para el, hasta el, del, por el . I would go for „al“ cine porque it is the most natural option! But with the named posibilities and multiple choice para el (direction/end point) hasta el (end point) and por el (route/location) are the correct ones!
Instead of "tener que", and we say "deber" instead?
Does "Tengo que lavar los manos" and "Debo lavar los manos" have the same usage?
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level