Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,771 questions • 9,332 answers • 922,082 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,771 questions • 9,332 answers • 922,082 learners
In this sentence: “La mayoría de sus calles no tienen nombre.”
If the sentence means “the majority of its streets don’t have names”, why is nombre singular and not plural?
If the sentence means : “the majority of its streets don’t have a name”, why is the indefinite article “un” not used for “a”?
I got confused with the explanation as you highlighted that ninguno is an ind pronoun which cant be used with a noun but gave no examples of the use of the ninguno whereas the actual test question 20 is all about the correct indefinite adjective ie ninguna playa which I got wrong. As a beginner one would naturally be forgiven thinking that there is a family of masculine and feminine indefinite adjectives but this appears wrong as the "apparent masc version is ninguno BUT it is an indefinte pronoun so would one look at a text grammar book as I could not resolve this/ Why mix up the tip on the same page??
Are the ending masculine -os or feminine -as based on the noun in the sentence or the adjective of the sentence?
Hola, tengo una pregunta sobre una frase que encontré en un libro que estoy leyendo. El párrafo dice: "Pero había un problema: si se quedaban allí juntos, no habría comida ni agua suficientes para todos."
Mi duda es: ¿Por qué se utiliza el imperfecto de indicativo ("se quedaban" en esta oración condicional en lugar del imperfecto de subjuntivo ("se quedaran") ? Si ambas son correctas, cual es la diferencia?
Gracias de antemano
Why is it not an option to say "en caso de que tengas paladar dulce"?
I answered ‘quizá me esté enamorando’ and the suggested corrections were ‘quizás’ (even though I know they’re interchangeable) and ‘estoy’. From what I understand the indicative and subjunctive are interchangeable after quizás - so just want to clarify if my answer is acceptable or if something is off about it?
The answer appears to treat estar as a verb like gustar. It doesn´t appear as such in your list. What am I missing?
¡Qué ________ sois vosotras dos! How aggressive you two are!(HINT: "peleón" = masculine for aggressive)… why is the answer peleonas?
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level