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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,748 questions • 9,368 answers • 927,021 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,748 questions • 9,368 answers • 927,021 learners
Wouldn't "Le gustaría explicarme..." be just as polite a question as "Podría explicarme..."?
¿¡Así que Diana estaba destinada a ser política!? ¿Y ella miró el pergamino después de que se quemara en sus manos?
Me he quedado insatisfecha. . .
Is there any reason to ever NOT use "que" after ojala? For example, is this construction ok: "Ojala que hubiera sabido que no tomes. No habria llevado vino." Or does that sound weird? Would it be better to say "Ojala hubiera sabido que no tomes..." (Also sorry I haven't used any of the appropriate accents here. I don't know how to find them on my keyboard!)
*I see one of the kwizq teachers responded that they are interchangeable ("ojala" and "ojala que"), but that using ojala without "que" is more common. Is that different in different countries? I feel like I've mostly heard people in Mexico say "ojala que," but I'm also only B1 and may have totally just not registered when they used ojala without "que!"
Any insight or advice appreciated!
Hi, my initial thought was that we would rather use an article before the noun in the following sentence: "...que el candidato conozca el derecho internacional". Could you please explain?
¡Qué ________ sois vosotras dos! How aggressive you two are!(HINT: "peleón" = masculine for aggressive)… why is the answer peleonas?
In this sentence: “La mayoría de sus calles no tienen nombre.”
If the sentence means “the majority of its streets don’t have names”, why is nombre singular and not plural?
If the sentence means : “the majority of its streets don’t have a name”, why is the indefinite article “un” not used for “a”?
Why is turbulence always plural? Do some words not have a single form? If so, is there a place I can find a list of them? Thanks.
I got confused with the explanation as you highlighted that ninguno is an ind pronoun which cant be used with a noun but gave no examples of the use of the ninguno whereas the actual test question 20 is all about the correct indefinite adjective ie ninguna playa which I got wrong. As a beginner one would naturally be forgiven thinking that there is a family of masculine and feminine indefinite adjectives but this appears wrong as the "apparent masc version is ninguno BUT it is an indefinte pronoun so would one look at a text grammar book as I could not resolve this/ Why mix up the tip on the same page??
I have trouble understanding why the question "Do you always choose your own clothes?" has the correct answer ¿Ustedes eligen siempre su ropa? I don't understand why ustedes is used instead of the singular usted, i.e. ¿Usted elige siempre su ropa?
Many of the test questions use what I think is the plural form when it is referring to one person. I don't doubt that the answer is correct usage, I just don't understand why ustedes is used sometimes when referring to one person.
Thank you
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