Spanish language Q&A Forum

it says to use the EN sentance order - what is that? Where can I find the answer?

I have noticed that the word “video” is pronounced differently in Spain and Latin America.  In Latin America, the word is pronounced as 3 syllables and the accent is on the “e” (2nd or middle syllable).  In contrast, in Spain the word seems to be pronounced with the accent on the “i” (1st syllable) and it seems like the word may only have 2 syllables in the peninsular pronunciation (with the “eo” pronounced as a one syllable diphthong).  Is this correct, and if not, what is going on here?

Why is the verb "Coger" used in some of these practice questions when the focus is Latin American Spanish? Would it not be better to use the verb "agarrar"?

A valuable lesson! But can you please explain the difference in the use of "hace" and "desde hace"? It seems that "hace" means "ago":

Lo compré hace tres semanas. - I bought it three weeks ago. 

And that "desde hace" means "for": Lo tengo desde hace tres semanas. - I’ve had it for three weeks.

However I keep coming across examples where either "desde hace" or "hace" can mean both "for" or "ago". Does it depend on context as to which one means "for" or "ago" or are they interchangeable?

It seems that translation is dependent upon interpretation:

"que no saldrá del cajón y le saldrán telerañas" translates as "which won't leave the drawer and it leaves with cobwebs" BUT is interpreted to mean "which will stay in the drawer gathering cobwebs". 

I note that in Mexico, official documents have to be translated "literally" but in the case above, that really wouldn't make much sense! How far can one go in interpreting versus translating? 

xx

This lesson tells when it uses the accento - but DOESN"T tell what it means/how to use with out the accento so can't see alternative

In the chart in the lesson, the meaning of "bueno" before the noun is listed as "simple/good" which implies that "buen hombre" could mean "simple man", which seems unlikely.   Is this a typo ?   Maybe the chart is meant to say that "bueno" before the noun means "simply good" ?

Thanks!

According to my dictionaries, there is a double 'e' in "irreemplazable"... [When I tried to leave my post like that^ - i.e. as just one brief sentence, Kwiziq refused to accept it, saying that I had not provided enough detail ... However, there is no need to say more... Admittedly, it is only a small point].

I just did a test related to this section on "regular" -er verbs and the verb used was escoger. The question did not relate to the 1st person singular so it did have a regular -er ending, but it was little confusing for this to be presented as regular when it has the same g-> j change as coger. There are plenty of completely regular verbs to choose from.

nos sentamos en una banqueta, de lo más felices mientras la música....

In the lesson on emphasis all the examples use a masculine singular adjective ( I put de lo más contento ) but was marked wrong. Is it really wrong?

Gracias

Es posible decir "Hay que comunicarse en español" en lugar de "Es necesario comunicarse en español"?