th difference between hace -v- desde haceA valuable lesson! But can you please explain the difference in the use of "hace" and "desde hace"? It seems that "hace" means "ago":
Lo compré hace tres semanas. - I bought it three weeks ago.
And that "desde hace" means "for": Lo tengo desde hace tres semanas. - I’ve had it for three weeks.
However I keep coming across examples where either "desde hace" or "hace" can mean both "for" or "ago". Does it depend on context as to which one means "for" or "ago" or are they interchangeable?
It seems that translation is dependent upon interpretation:
"que no saldrá del cajón y le saldrán telerañas" translates as "which won't leave the drawer and it leaves with cobwebs" BUT is interpreted to mean "which will stay in the drawer gathering cobwebs".
I note that in Mexico, official documents have to be translated "literally" but in the case above, that really wouldn't make much sense! How far can one go in interpreting versus translating?
xx
the English translation of "la puedes cocinar a la plancha" is rendered as "you can cook it on the plancha". Is "plancha" an English word? I have never heard it before and I don't know what it means. I looked it up and it says "flat top grill". I'm not even sure what that is. Is "plancha" a word that is used in Brittish English?
Hola
Me puedes explicar por que usamos 'le' aqui?
1. Le tengo miedo a las alturas.
2. Le tenemos miedo a las alturas.
3. Le tienen miedo a las alturas.
A valuable lesson! But can you please explain the difference in the use of "hace" and "desde hace"? It seems that "hace" means "ago":
Lo compré hace tres semanas. - I bought it three weeks ago.
And that "desde hace" means "for": Lo tengo desde hace tres semanas. - I’ve had it for three weeks.
However I keep coming across examples where either "desde hace" or "hace" can mean both "for" or "ago". Does it depend on context as to which one means "for" or "ago" or are they interchangeable?
It seems that translation is dependent upon interpretation:
"que no saldrá del cajón y le saldrán telerañas" translates as "which won't leave the drawer and it leaves with cobwebs" BUT is interpreted to mean "which will stay in the drawer gathering cobwebs".
I note that in Mexico, official documents have to be translated "literally" but in the case above, that really wouldn't make much sense! How far can one go in interpreting versus translating?
xx
I thought LLaves was keys I'm not sure what the spanish is for quays, is it cayos?
Hola,
Would it be possible to also say '...mi seccion favorita es la de musica' as well the given "...mi seccion favorita es la seccion de musica"?
Gracias.
Hi,
For this sentence "formaré un círculo como base del iglú" could I have used this sentence instead?:-formaré un círculo para el base del iglú
Thanks
.....antes fue a tontaría. I believe this should be 'lo de que' as 'ir is conjugated, but the answer shown as correct is 'lo de', why?
As other users have commented, "había" seems to be the past-tense equivalent of "hay".
"Había" is the past imperfect conjugation of haber, but the present tense conjugations of haber (he has ha hemos han) do not include "hay".
Is the word "hay" some other conjugation of "haber", or is not actually from the same root word?
Hello,
Can you give some examples or guidelines on when and what contexts to use different words/phrases for "everywhere". For example, I'm confused when or what contexts to use dondequiera, por todas partes, por todos lados, and doquiere/por doquiere. Thanks very much for clarification.
If someone hits you, I will intervene.
Si alguien te golpea, intervendré. o Si alguien te golpea, intervengo.
Which is more appropriate or "right"?
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