Spanish language Q&A Forum

As other users have commented, "había" seems to be the past-tense equivalent of "hay".

"Había" is the past imperfect conjugation of haber, but the present tense conjugations of haber (he has ha hemos han) do not include "hay".

Is the word "hay" some other conjugation of "haber", or is not actually from the same root word?

Hi Can you please explain why - "I don't know if I will see him again" is not subjunctive, because it is all so uncertain.

Thanks

brenda

I have a question about the sentence: "Le dare el dinero que le debo por si acaso se me olivida despues."  If I understand, this sentence expresses the idea that the speaker feels that it is fairly likely that they will forget.  If they thought that it was unlikely that they would forget, then the conditional clause would say "..se me olvidara".  So myy question is: What if the main clause were in el preterito indefinido (Le di el dinero...)?  Would the conditional clause still need to be "...se me olvidara"?  If the speaker considers the condition in the subordinate clause to be less probable, the conditional clause would use the imperfecto do subjunctivo (...se me olividara) whether the main clause refers to a future action or a past action?  Is this correct?Sorry, I don't know how to type accents.

Is there a way to put the list of A1 stem changing AR verbs e to ie in the present tense into my notebook?

I thought on reading this lesson that all 'er' verbs with 'o' in would follow this rule to become 'ue' but then got a test on 'toser' and got that wrong (tried to put tueso, not toso).  Plus comer stays as 'o'.

How do we know when to apply this rule, is it a case of just learning the verbs which are semi-regular? Are there a lot or is this pretty doable?

F

The above hint is given for this exercise, but what is the "EN phrase order"? - I've tried searching for this but I can't find anything.

Por qué hay una coma entre y otra coma después de ?

Dear Inma,

What is the reason for having the part "De tanto/tan poco que/como + indicative" instead of "De tanto que/como + indicative" with "De tan poco que/como + indicative" being covered in the previous part "De tan+ adjective/adverb + que/como + indicative"?

Best regards, Janusz

Why is this sentence: Yo he llegado pronto a trabajar esta tarde? Translated as “I arrived early to work this morning” and not “I have arrived early to work this morning”? The present perfect tense includes the use of have correct?