Spanish language Q&A Forum

¡Qué ________ sois vosotras dos! How aggressive you two are!(HINT: "peleón" = masculine for aggressive)… why is the answer peleonas?

Hola Inma!

Es correcto o no usar SI + PRETÉRITO PLUSCUAMPERFECTO DE SUBJUNTIVO + FUTURO SIMPLE / CONDICIONAL SIMPLE como en la siguiente oración:

Si el próximo jueves no hubiera / hubiese llegado el paquete, reclamaremos / reclamaríamos a la oficina de Correos.

Gracias,

Miltcho

I am a bit frustrated with this lesson.  I guess my question is this: with my limited (A1) knowledge of Spanish, how am I supposed to know "that sometimes the feminine and masculine forms are the same" when repeatedly the test gives adjectives I do not (yet) know in Spanish?  

For example, placid.  I do not KNOW how to say placid in Spanish, thus how can I know if I should use the feminine adjective form or simply add mente?  The assumption of adjective knowledge doesn't work unless, as is sometimes done in the test, you GIVE the adjective form in the test question; example: Los coches son rápidos: van rápidamente.   In this example test question it is easy to understand rápidos (masculine form) will change to the feminine because I can SEE rápidos!  The frustrates me to get wrong when it seems to be testing me more on knowing a large range of adjectives in Spanish more than the specific assignment of adding the "ly" form! I don't see my scores getting better based on the lesson given.

I don’t really understand how you can tell when not to translate verbatim? Is there a reason “ Now I cannot stop thinking about her” cannot be translated as “Ahora no puedo dejar de pensar en ella “. I am not seeing why it is translated as “ahora no dejo de pensar en ella”. Why wouldn’t the translation for that just simply be “now I don’t stop thinking about her”. Please help me understand why this is incorrect. These examples are the only reason I am doing poorly. Thank you. 

This was easy to understand because it was so slow. How do I get to listen to stories in Latin American Spanish? The only ones I have found have been in European Spanish.

As stated by one example, "Yo conocí a Susana hace 6 meses."

However, as stated by another, "Hablé con Clara hace 2 horas." 

Why didn't the second example utilize "a"

Is it because "con" had already been used?

In question #9: No ________ ni una cosa ni la otra, me da igual. 

(HINT: Conjugate "preferir" in El Presente)

Can you say,  ninguno de ellos instead?

Hello. Can someone provide insight please? It says you use Hay in front of a noun so why is it used to say something is foggy. I am sure that foggy is an adjective just like the word sunny so why is esta used to say something is sunny but you can’t use it to say it is foggy?

Hola

Me puedes explicar por que usamos 'le' aqui?

1. Le tengo miedo a las alturas.

2. Le tenemos miedo a las alturas.

3. Le tienen miedo a las alturas.