Spanish language Q&A Forum

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In the reading, the sentence "A que no te lo imaginabas?" is translated as "Can you imagine?".  It seems like that translation is missing some nuance.  After reading through the corresponding lesson, it seems like more accurate translation would be "I bet you wouldn't have imagined it!".  Would this be accurate, or am I missing something?

Por qué hay una coma entre y otra coma después de ?

Dear Inma,

What is the reason for having the part "De tanto/tan poco que/como + indicative" instead of "De tanto que/como + indicative" with "De tan poco que/como + indicative" being covered in the previous part "De tan+ adjective/adverb + que/como + indicative"?

Best regards, Janusz

Is there a way to put the list of A1 stem changing AR verbs e to ie in the present tense into my notebook?

I understand that when "tal vez" and "quizas" are used, they can be followed by either subjunctive or indicative mood.  But "a lo mejor" only accepts indicative mood.  And, since "tal vez", "quizas", and "a lo mejor" can all be translated as "maybe" in English, this creates some confusion for English speakers.  My question is this: even though they are all tranlated as "maybe" in english, does the phrase "a lo mejor" convey less doubt/uncertainty than "tal vez/quizas" in spanish?

Hola, what does ya mean in this sentence. Muchas gracias, Shirley. 

I would translate this as "Take any dish."

Coge cualquier plato. 

I would translate this exactly the same way.

Under what circumstances would one choose to use either one?

Are these words indeterminate and/or invariable and what are the meanings or other examples of indeterminate and invariable?

If I wrote:

¿Puede venir cualquiera a mi fiesta? 

Can anyone come to my party?  Would that be incorrect?