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5,724 questions • 9,210 answers • 906,734 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,724 questions • 9,210 answers • 906,734 learners
habra convocatorias
I am a bit frustrated with this lesson. I guess my question is this: with my limited (A1) knowledge of Spanish, how am I supposed to know "that sometimes the feminine and masculine forms are the same" when repeatedly the test gives adjectives I do not (yet) know in Spanish?
For example, placid. I do not KNOW how to say placid in Spanish, thus how can I know if I should use the feminine adjective form or simply add mente? The assumption of adjective knowledge doesn't work unless, as is sometimes done in the test, you GIVE the adjective form in the test question; example: Los coches son rápidos: van rápidamente. In this example test question it is easy to understand rápidos (masculine form) will change to the feminine because I can SEE rápidos! The frustrates me to get wrong when it seems to be testing me more on knowing a large range of adjectives in Spanish more than the specific assignment of adding the "ly" form! I don't see my scores getting better based on the lesson given.
When do you use “de bajo de” versus just “bajo” for under? Also why does lobster not have the definite article? Thanks.
Some of the English answers in this exercise use the past tense in English, and some use the past perfect tense, por ejemplo:
We hope that you HAVE finished it on time. NOT We hope that you finished it on time.
I hope that you booked the restaurant in advance. NOT I hope that you HAVE booked the restaurant in advance.
In English, there may be very little difference, if any, in the meaning of the sentence, but I wonder why in some examples, "have" is used and in others, it is omitted.
I have noticed that the word “video” is pronounced differently in Spain and Latin America. In Latin America, the word is pronounced as 3 syllables and the accent is on the “e” (2nd or middle syllable). In contrast, in Spain the word seems to be pronounced with the accent on the “i” (1st syllable) and it seems like the word may only have 2 syllables in the peninsular pronunciation (with the “eo” pronounced as a one syllable diphthong). Is this correct, and if not, what is going on here?
Why is ustedes used sometimes for singular subjects?
For example, Ustedes hacen una tarta de chocolate deliciosa. - is translated you make... It seems to me it should be: Usted hago una tarta de chocolate deliciosa.
What am I missing?
Hello, I don't understand, why "fascinar" always has to be conjugated in the 3rd person singular or plural, as you have written in the lesson. If I want to say instead of "I am fascinated by Hollywood actresses." the sentence "I am fascinated by you.", I think I have to say "Me fascinas tú." I think, that it's only always in the 3rd person, if it is followed by a verb. And it should be the same with gustar and encantar. Or did I understand something wrong?
I wonder to know whether the second sentence need add ´´la´´ to indicate ´´the´´ meaning or not? Thanks.
Nosotros todavía no salimos del trabajo. /We haven't yet left work.
Juan todavía no salió de casa. /Juan has not left the house yet.
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