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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,073 questions • 9,948 answers • 1,032,900 learners
Why is the subjunctive necessary when the subject is the same in both parts of the sentence?
It seems to me it is not always the case that se comes from a pronominal verb.
I think not when the situtation is accidental or emotional, right? So a non pronominal verb can accompany se while it is being activated buy these 2 states. In other words in,
Los niños se nos están haciendo mayores sin darnos cuenta.Our children are growing without us realising.
hacerse not here, se only comes from emotional involvement. Or is it always the case? I can see where hacerse means becoming.
Why is this answer not correct? It is how i translated it in my head before checking the answers.
Laura no ha venido a visitarnos por días.
What does it take to move from A0 to A1? I am allegedly testing at 89.91% at A0 right now and am puzzled why I am not able under to "Choose your focus" to select A1 material? It would seem for goal setting one should know what it takes to move up. Am I missing something?
Why isn't "No me gusta comer el chocolate?"
As in, why don't we use the article
Maybe start by listing the days of the week. None of the examples given mention Thursday.
Is there a general rule in Spanish about when the definite article must be used and when it can be omitted? Eg why do azúcar, sodio, carbohidratos and lácteos need the definite article but not pescado, marisco, granos and huevos?
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