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5,724 questions • 9,211 answers • 906,773 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,724 questions • 9,211 answers • 906,773 learners
Hola : ) Una pregunta: Se puede usar 'durante' en vez de desde hacía, como en la frase siguiente?
No hacía ejercicio _durante_ dos años cuando empecé a hacer footing.
O por ejemplo, sería incorrecto decir: No había hecho ejercicio durante años?
When using de lo más with estar, specifically, is it preferred or more common to have the adjective agree with the subject, as distinct from when using ser for example? I noticed the specific example sentences using estar both have adjective agreement with the subjects. So I wasn't sure if this was supposed to be indicative or if it's just a quirk of having examples that were chosen at random, and I can't seem to find an answer anywhere else...
While I wrote eres, it was marked incorrect and es being correct.
Just wondering on why?
Claude-3.5-Sonnet dice que
"They may want a higher salary"
puede traducirse como
"Quizás querrían un salario más alto".
El bot dice que el condicional da un matiz más tentativo o hipotético que el subjuntivo y suena más cortés o diplomático. ¿Qué opinas?
la de fotos que
Are there any guidelines for the use of the phrase '' ''los demás'' versus ''los otros'' this? Many thanks
I have noticed that the word “video” is pronounced differently in Spain and Latin America. In Latin America, the word is pronounced as 3 syllables and the accent is on the “e” (2nd or middle syllable). In contrast, in Spain the word seems to be pronounced with the accent on the “i” (1st syllable) and it seems like the word may only have 2 syllables in the peninsular pronunciation (with the “eo” pronounced as a one syllable diphthong). Is this correct, and if not, what is going on here?
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