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5,814 questions • 9,521 answers • 952,308 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,814 questions • 9,521 answers • 952,308 learners
The answer is sin saber los adultos. I’m not sure why the answer is not subjunctive as there are two different subjects, the one who stayed hiding and then the parents
For the following question, is en cuál also correct?
La casa ________ ha sido derrumbada.
The house which I was so happy in has been demolished.que fui tan felizen la que fui tan felizla cual fui tan feliz enen cual fui tan felizHello. I'm a bit confused on the optional placements of "le" in sentences. For example, if i want to say "I don't want to ask my brother for money". Would both sentences below be correct? And if so, is one construction more commonly used in Mexico and Latin America?
No le quiero pedir dinero a mi hermano vs. No quiero pedirle dinero a mi hermano.
Thank you!
A valuable lesson! But can you please explain the difference in the use of "hace" and "desde hace"? It seems that "hace" means "ago":
Lo compré hace tres semanas. - I bought it three weeks ago.
And that "desde hace" means "for": Lo tengo desde hace tres semanas. - I’ve had it for three weeks.
However I keep coming across examples where either "desde hace" or "hace" can mean both "for" or "ago". Does it depend on context as to which one means "for" or "ago" or are they interchangeable?
It seems that translation is dependent upon interpretation:
"que no saldrá del cajón y le saldrán telerañas" translates as "which won't leave the drawer and it leaves with cobwebs" BUT is interpreted to mean "which will stay in the drawer gathering cobwebs".
I note that in Mexico, official documents have to be translated "literally" but in the case above, that really wouldn't make much sense! How far can one go in interpreting versus translating?
xx
Buenas tardes Silvia y Inma,
I do understand the use of 'sentir' instead of 'oler' when referring to the 'being able to smell the aroma'. I was wondering though if 'sentir' is used in mainland Spain as well as in Latin America? Also, is 'sentir' used with any other of the 'senses', i.e. to touch, etc.?
Gracias.
El profesor llevaba hablando con el estudiante diez minutos cuando entramos en la habitación.
El profesor había estado hablando con el estudiante diez minutos cuando entramos en la habitación
I have the same question as Ryan B., below. “ In the last 2 examples, the subjects are:
Mis cortinas nuevas y las negociaciones.
Obviously, the position of the subjects is different. Is there any reason or do they have the same meaning?
Could, for example, the first 3 sentences be written as..
Secretarias con experiencia se buscan.
El periódico barato se vende aquí.
Apartamentos de lujo se venden en la playa.
?
Por fin...
Could the last two sentences be written as ..
Se han hecho mis cortinas nuevas en dos días.
Se harán las negociaciones pronto.
??
I thought LLaves was keys I'm not sure what the spanish is for quays, is it cayos?
One of the test questions is:
"________ al colegio ha habido problemas.
Since this girl arrived at school there have been problems."
which I answered as:
"Ya que esta niña llegó",
which was marked as wrong.
Why can't I think that "Since" here has causal value, which would render my answer correct?
I think you have the A1 and B1 verb lists switched for this topic. There are 28 verbs on the A1 list, including some less common ones like hervir, invertir, negar, and tremblar.
But then there are only 15 basic verbs on the B1 list.
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