Spanish language Q&A Forum

Buena lectura para obtener nuevo vocabulario.

A great poem in Spanish which should be enjoyed in Spanish. While the translation gives lots of new vocab (with poetic license) the true enjoyment is in the flow of Spanish and not in the clumsiness of an English translation!

But the concept of the subjunctive is different in English and is little understood by most anglófonos. For example:

Te di el dinero para que me dejaras en paz. - In the English subjunctive form "I gave you the money so that you should leave me alone."

Whereas to use "would leave me alone" should be in the conditional: "Te di el dinero para que me dejarías en paz.

Or are the two subjunctive concepts interpreted "differently" ?

¡Hola! Tengo una preguntita...

Why do we use "es sabroso" here when in other exercises we've opted for "está rico/delicioso etc", which seems to be a similar idea?

¡Muchas gracias!

"Le compré flores."

Does this mean:

I bought her flowers (for her)

or

I bought flowers from her

How do I make it clearer, unambiguous?

Thank you.

In Spanish the word Pachamama is their way of telling if it's a masculine or feminine word.

¿La culinaria es sinónimo de la cocina? Entonces, ¿es correcto escribir “ les encantará la culinaria colombiana?”

Hello.  The following example in this lesson threw me off:  "After the party we will call a taxi" (Despues de fiesta llamamos un taxi).  My question is why was the present tense ("llamamos"), and not the future tense ("llamaremos"), used here?  My guess is that the future time is very short (i.e., right after the party).  If this is correct, is there a general rule for a given time frame that would require use of the future tense?  Thank you for any clarification.