Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola, what does ya mean in this sentence. Muchas gracias, Shirley. 

Hola : ) Una pregunta: Se puede usar 'durante' en vez de desde hacía, como en la frase siguiente?

No hacía ejercicio _durante_ dos años cuando empecé a hacer footing.

O por ejemplo, sería incorrecto decir: No había hecho ejercicio durante años?

Dear Inma,

What is the reason for having the part "De tanto/tan poco que/como + indicative" instead of "De tanto que/como + indicative" with "De tan poco que/como + indicative" being covered in the previous part "De tan+ adjective/adverb + que/como + indicative"?

Best regards, Janusz

Claude-3.5-Sonnet dice que

"They may want a higher salary"

puede traducirse como

"Quizás querrían un salario más alto".

El bot dice que el condicional da un matiz más tentativo o hipotético que el subjuntivo y suena más cortés o diplomático. ¿Qué opinas?

I understand that when "tal vez" and "quizas" are used, they can be followed by either subjunctive or indicative mood.  But "a lo mejor" only accepts indicative mood.  And, since "tal vez", "quizas", and "a lo mejor" can all be translated as "maybe" in English, this creates some confusion for English speakers.  My question is this: even though they are all tranlated as "maybe" in english, does the phrase "a lo mejor" convey less doubt/uncertainty than "tal vez/quizas" in spanish?

I would translate this as "Take any dish."

Coge cualquier plato. 

I would translate this exactly the same way.

Under what circumstances would one choose to use either one?

Are these words indeterminate and/or invariable and what are the meanings or other examples of indeterminate and invariable?

If I wrote:

¿Puede venir cualquiera a mi fiesta? 

Can anyone come to my party?  Would that be incorrect?

Is there a way to put the list of A1 stem changing AR verbs e to ie in the present tense into my notebook?

(in order) to direct the water into the tank    is tranlated as    para dirigir el agua hacia el tanque

I always thought that hacia was more towards and not necessarily entering.  The lesson on hacia doesn't show entering.

For example, how could I distinguish between 'I walked towards the tunnel' and 'I walked into the tunnel' ?

Gracias

In the reading, the sentence "A que no te lo imaginabas?" is translated as "Can you imagine?".  It seems like that translation is missing some nuance.  After reading through the corresponding lesson, it seems like more accurate translation would be "I bet you wouldn't have imagined it!".  Would this be accurate, or am I missing something?

I have noticed that the word “video” is pronounced differently in Spain and Latin America.  In Latin America, the word is pronounced as 3 syllables and the accent is on the “e” (2nd or middle syllable).  In contrast, in Spain the word seems to be pronounced with the accent on the “i” (1st syllable) and it seems like the word may only have 2 syllables in the peninsular pronunciation (with the “eo” pronounced as a one syllable diphthong).  Is this correct, and if not, what is going on here?