th difference between hace -v- desde haceA valuable lesson! But can you please explain the difference in the use of "hace" and "desde hace"? It seems that "hace" means "ago":
Lo compré hace tres semanas. - I bought it three weeks ago.
And that "desde hace" means "for": Lo tengo desde hace tres semanas. - I’ve had it for three weeks.
However I keep coming across examples where either "desde hace" or "hace" can mean both "for" or "ago". Does it depend on context as to which one means "for" or "ago" or are they interchangeable?
It seems that translation is dependent upon interpretation:
"que no saldrá del cajón y le saldrán telerañas" translates as "which won't leave the drawer and it leaves with cobwebs" BUT is interpreted to mean "which will stay in the drawer gathering cobwebs".
I note that in Mexico, official documents have to be translated "literally" but in the case above, that really wouldn't make much sense! How far can one go in interpreting versus translating?
xx
I was going to paint my bed last week?
This lesson still applies or Preterite should be used? It was planned for the last week. Or now it depends on which time frame we use?
F
I understand that when "tal vez" and "quizas" are used, they can be followed by either subjunctive or indicative mood. But "a lo mejor" only accepts indicative mood. And, since "tal vez", "quizas", and "a lo mejor" can all be translated as "maybe" in English, this creates some confusion for English speakers. My question is this: even though they are all tranlated as "maybe" in english, does the phrase "a lo mejor" convey less doubt/uncertainty than "tal vez/quizas" in spanish?
I thought LLaves was keys I'm not sure what the spanish is for quays, is it cayos?
Dear Inma,
What is the reason for having the part "De tanto/tan poco que/como + indicative" instead of "De tanto que/como + indicative" with "De tan poco que/como + indicative" being covered in the previous part "De tan+ adjective/adverb + que/como + indicative"?
Best regards, Janusz
A valuable lesson! But can you please explain the difference in the use of "hace" and "desde hace"? It seems that "hace" means "ago":
Lo compré hace tres semanas. - I bought it three weeks ago.
And that "desde hace" means "for": Lo tengo desde hace tres semanas. - I’ve had it for three weeks.
However I keep coming across examples where either "desde hace" or "hace" can mean both "for" or "ago". Does it depend on context as to which one means "for" or "ago" or are they interchangeable?
It seems that translation is dependent upon interpretation:
"que no saldrá del cajón y le saldrán telerañas" translates as "which won't leave the drawer and it leaves with cobwebs" BUT is interpreted to mean "which will stay in the drawer gathering cobwebs".
I note that in Mexico, official documents have to be translated "literally" but in the case above, that really wouldn't make much sense! How far can one go in interpreting versus translating?
xx
Hola, what does ya mean in this sentence. Muchas gracias, Shirley.
As stated by one example, "Yo conocí a Susana hace 6 meses."
However, as stated by another, "Hablé con Clara hace 2 horas."
Why didn't the second example utilize "a"
Is it because "con" had already been used?
Could a correct translation option also be "En la madrugada"?
Hola
Me puedes explicar por que usamos 'le' aqui?
1. Le tengo miedo a las alturas.
2. Le tenemos miedo a las alturas.
3. Le tienen miedo a las alturas.
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