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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,073 questions • 9,948 answers • 1,032,946 learners
Why is this sentence: Yo he llegado pronto a trabajar esta tarde? Translated as “I arrived early to work this morning” and not “I have arrived early to work this morning”? The present perfect tense includes the use of have correct?
When using de lo más with estar, specifically, is it preferred or more common to have the adjective agree with the subject, as distinct from when using ser for example? I noticed the specific example sentences using estar both have adjective agreement with the subjects. So I wasn't sure if this was supposed to be indicative or if it's just a quirk of having examples that were chosen at random, and I can't seem to find an answer anywhere else...
For the following question, is en cuál also correct?
La casa ________ ha sido derrumbada.
The house which I was so happy in has been demolished.que fui tan felizen la que fui tan felizla cual fui tan feliz enen cual fui tan felizFill in the blank with the doler verb that best completes each sentence: A mí _____ _______ los brazos.
A great poem in Spanish which should be enjoyed in Spanish. While the translation gives lots of new vocab (with poetic license) the true enjoyment is in the flow of Spanish and not in the clumsiness of an English translation!
But the concept of the subjunctive is different in English and is little understood by most anglófonos. For example:
Te di el dinero para que me dejaras en paz. - In the English subjunctive form "I gave you the money so that you should leave me alone."
Whereas to use "would leave me alone" should be in the conditional: "Te di el dinero para que me dejarías en paz.
Or are the two subjunctive concepts interpreted "differently" ?
This was listed as B2, but required knowledge from C1 areas: Using dicho, dicha, dichos, dichas to say this/these (formal) and Using Spanish relatives el que, la que, los que, las que = the one/ones who/that (relative pronouns)
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