I understand that when "tal vez" and "quizas" are used, they can be followed by either subjunctive or indicative mood. But "a lo mejor" only accepts indicative mood. And, since "tal vez", "quizas", and "a lo mejor" can all be translated as "maybe" in English, this creates some confusion for English speakers. My question is this: even though they are all tranlated as "maybe" in english, does the phrase "a lo mejor" convey less doubt/uncertainty than "tal vez/quizas" in spanish?
meaning of "a lo mejor" vs "quizas"
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steven s.Kwiziq community member
meaning of "a lo mejor" vs "quizas"
This question relates to:Spanish lesson "Using the Spanish indicative with a lo mejor/lo mismo (LatAm)"
Asked 2 hours ago
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