Spanish language Q&A Forum

I know that this construction (using cómo si + indicative to express indifference) is common in colloquial speech.  My question:  Is this a currently officially excepted grammatical construction by the RAE?  I found one source that says that the RAE says that this construction is common but must be considered incorrect.  But I am not sure if I’m looking at the most appropriate or most updated source.

Hi everyone,

I’m planning to take the DELE B2 exam and I have a question about the reading section. I know that part of the reading exam tests grammar through gap-fill exercises. I’m wondering: how much does this overlap with the grammar content taught in Kwiziq B2 courses?

In other words, if I master all the grammar lessons on Kwiziq (assuming my vocabulary is sufficient), would I likely be able to pass the reading section comfortably, say, at least 20/25 points?

I’m not asking about listening, speaking, or writing, just the grammar-related part of reading.

Thanks in advance for any insights from those who have taken the exam!

This lesson tells when it uses the accento - but DOESN"T tell what it means/how to use with out the accento so can't see alternative

I noticed with this translation, it isn’t following the normal rule for translating “ing” congregations for verbs. Is this because they are semi-regular verbs? Thank you 

Why is it not an option to say "en caso de que tengas paladar dulce"?

Does anyone here run a conversation group to practice lives zoom etc.? I'm not looking to join tandem or meetup.

I made some errors, had some typos, some dropped plurals, missed accents, etc., but I got most of it right.  But then the score said "0 out of 60.  Missed your morning coffee?"  I think I do not understand how the dictation is scored.  Could you please explain?

In this sentence: “La mayoría de sus calles no tienen nombre.”

If the sentence means “the majority of its streets don’t have names”, why is nombre singular and not plural?

If the sentence means : “the majority of its streets don’t have a name”, why is the indefinite article “un” not used for “a”?

if idea is feminine sowe use la, but in a quiz it was incorrect and the correct one was ( el idea)so is idea a feminine or musculine noun? 

In this final example, why is it alguno and not algunos in the second sentence. Some in English would never refer to one thing so the English translation and the Spanish don’t seem to match to me. This doesn’t seem to be an example of the point before about “alguna revista” meaning some magazine or things like that.

Don't mix the indefinite adjective algún with the indefinite pronoun alguno. You can never use alguno with a noun!