Spanish language Q&A Forum

habra convocatorias

En la frase: será colorear en un cuaderno que tenga figuras en blanco, por qué se necesita tenga en lugar de tiene?

I made some errors, had some typos, some dropped plurals, missed accents, etc., but I got most of it right.  But then the score said "0 out of 60.  Missed your morning coffee?"  I think I do not understand how the dictation is scored.  Could you please explain?

I just took one of the B1 quizes and I got this one wrong:

La había comprado para sus padres. ________ la había comprado. (He'd bought it for his parents. He'd bought it for them.)

It says the answer is "Se la habia comprado." I put "Por ellos, la había comprado."

Is it ever correct to "por" whoever, instead of "se"?

It sounds more natural to me to say "La había comprado por ellos," rather than "Se lo había comprado." It also seems clearer because "ellos" is specific (them), where as "se" could be you, him, them...

Is that wrong? Less common? Common only in certain countries or situations?

I feel like there are 2 correct answers to this question:

Es el hombre más honesto ________.

He's the most honest man I've ever met.

I think the one I choose and the one identified as correct are equally correct. 

que jamás haya conocido - identified answer 

jamás yo he conocido - my answer 

Please explain.  Thank you 

What would be the correct way to express losing a game? 
(ex: "We lost the game [and the other team won]" vs. "We missed the game [because we arrived late]")

In this sentence: “La mayoría de sus calles no tienen nombre.”

If the sentence means “the majority of its streets don’t have names”, why is nombre singular and not plural?

If the sentence means : “the majority of its streets don’t have a name”, why is the indefinite article “un” not used for “a”?