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Let me take a look at that...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,807 questions • 9,506 answers • 951,307 learners
While I understand the explanation via timeframes and don't want to complicate things unnecessarily, this made me think:
Can't I use the imperfect (progressive) with such timeframes, too?
Ayer estaba limpiando la casa. (Should be ok.)
Ayer entre la 1 y las 2 estaba limpiando la casa. (?)
Ayer entre la 1 y las 2 estaba limpiando la casa cuando algo me asustó. (Should be ok.)
That is, can't the imperfect (progressive) be used with an explicit timeframe, too, as long as its function is descriptive or establishing a background, i.e. as long as the aspectual semantics are imperfective within the timeframe?
Why es “que flores” correct? I thought “cual flores” would be the correct response… the question was “what flowers do you prefer?”
I made some errors, had some typos, some dropped plurals, missed accents, etc., but I got most of it right. But then the score said "0 out of 60. Missed your morning coffee?" I think I do not understand how the dictation is scored. Could you please explain?
I wanna know why sometimes it's te gustan, not te gusta, In what situation we gotta add 'n' behind the gustar?
Probably better [in the English original] to say "If you ever travel to Bogotá ..." - [rather than "... traveled ..."].
Please could you explain why in the writing translation exercise on Picasso the correct answer is “fue pintado” in the passive form and not estaba pintado. Please explain the distinction between the 2 sentences
I answered ‘quizá me esté enamorando’ and the suggested corrections were ‘quizás’ (even though I know they’re interchangeable) and ‘estoy’. From what I understand the indicative and subjunctive are interchangeable after quizás - so just want to clarify if my answer is acceptable or if something is off about it?
HI
Can you send me advance lesson on all tocar uses
Thanks
Can I say bien interesante here? Also, why isn’t regreso a casa correct?
I understand that “vestir” needs to be used because it is a transitive verb requiring a direct object, but why is “se” used which I believe would indicate that it is a reflexive verb?
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