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5,932 questions • 9,702 answers • 983,896 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,932 questions • 9,702 answers • 983,896 learners
In this sentence: “La mayoría de sus calles no tienen nombre.”
If the sentence means “the majority of its streets don’t have names”, why is nombre singular and not plural?
If the sentence means : “the majority of its streets don’t have a name”, why is the indefinite article “un” not used for “a”?
Hi do use the same as month for year? ¿En qué año estamos? Estamos en 1988.
And weekends and seasons? Estamos a fin de semana. or Estamos al fin de semana.
Thank you
Listen to the birds sing.
I put ' escuchar al canto de los pájaros'. I don't understand why this is incorrect as another option given was 'escuchar a los pájaros cantar'
I'm not sure when I can use escuchar + a
Gracias
Gracias por este pasaje. ¡Disfruté mucho aprendiendo sobre esta tradición curiosa! Además, porque toda mi familia, o sea, mis abuelos y mis antepasados eran de Burgos.
También, el caballero que está leyendo este pasaje tiene una voz encantadora y muy clara. Muchas gracias por esto.
In this final example, why is it alguno and not algunos in the second sentence. Some in English would never refer to one thing so the English translation and the Spanish don’t seem to match to me. This doesn’t seem to be an example of the point before about “alguna revista” meaning some magazine or things like that.
Don't mix the indefinite adjective algún with the indefinite pronoun alguno. You can never use alguno with a noun!
¿Viste a algún famoso en Miami? Sí, vi a alguno.Did you see any famous people in Miami? Yes, I saw some.I just took one of the B1 quizes and I got this one wrong:
La había comprado para sus padres. ________ la había comprado. (He'd bought it for his parents. He'd bought it for them.)
It says the answer is "Se la habia comprado." I put "Por ellos, la había comprado."
Is it ever correct to "por" whoever, instead of "se"?
It sounds more natural to me to say "La había comprado por ellos," rather than "Se lo había comprado." It also seems clearer because "ellos" is specific (them), where as "se" could be you, him, them...
Is that wrong? Less common? Common only in certain countries or situations?
Hi. I think someone mentioned this point some time ago and the reply was that the problem had been fixed but it doesn’t appear to have been. Under the section on “desde que” in the example “Mañana, desde que aterrices hasta que llegues…” “hasta que” appears in bold rather than “desde que”. I hope this helps. :)
Hi everyone,
I’m planning to take the DELE B2 exam and I have a question about the reading section. I know that part of the reading exam tests grammar through gap-fill exercises. I’m wondering: how much does this overlap with the grammar content taught in Kwiziq B2 courses?
In other words, if I master all the grammar lessons on Kwiziq (assuming my vocabulary is sufficient), would I likely be able to pass the reading section comfortably, say, at least 20/25 points?
I’m not asking about listening, speaking, or writing, just the grammar-related part of reading.
Thanks in advance for any insights from those who have taken the exam!
Hello
I would like to ask that this structure always followed by noun like la página, la mitad etc. Or conjugated verb or infinitive verb can also be used or anything ?
Why is it incorrect to say "espero que no tomen muchas fotos....."? Or, why is it only correct to use sacar in the subjunctive?
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