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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,726 questions • 9,227 answers • 909,331 learners
Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,726 questions • 9,227 answers • 909,331 learners
Would it not be better to translate this as "Estabais comprando las bebidas mientras comíamos." ?
When a noun is used to describe the weather, hacer is used but when an adjective or participle is used then the verb is estar: En otoño, hace viento -v- en otoño está ventoso.
Pero why is ser used for: en otoño es incomodo? Or should it be está?
Why not use "te" as the indirect object?
Hi, when will these exercises be fixed? It has been several days now. Thanks for a great app.
Mis amigos van a pagar una cena en un restaurante tailandés.
"Fue un dia muy lindo" is describing the day and the weather. Why wouldn't it be "Era un dia my lindo"?
For the final section (i.e., "to enjoy the evening") the hint was "disfrutar (de)". I do not understand the significance of "de" as a hint for that segment of the sentence. Why was "(de)" part of the hint? I was completely thrown off by that "hint".
Pati Ecuamiga
I answered 'tendremos una' , but the correct answer was, just, 'tendremos'. Why is 'una' not required?
In the example:
Nuestra ayuda está dirigida a jóvenes sin empleo. Estas son personas que han acabado sus estudios y no han encontrado trabajo.
why is it "Estas" and not "Estos"? Doesn't this pronoun need to agree with "jóvenes" rather than "personas"?
In the test question, "Rafael y Julio son unos chicos muy . . . ," The English translation omits the "some" (unos). I wonder why that was done. Was it to show that "unos" is always added in the given Spanish usage? I would be interested in any corresponding lesson.
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