Spanish language Q&A Forum

"Why did you tell Luisa......" seems to me to need the indefinite object pronoun as in "¿Por qué le habéis dicho a Luisa...." but this answer is marked as incorrect. Why? Isn't it actually the correct way to say this part of the sentence even though I haven't gotten to a lesson about these pronouns?

The lesson specifically states that we don’t use the gerund as we might in English.  Then the gerund is used: He dejado de fumar. Am I missing something? Nowhere in the lesson does it say in certain instances we would use the gerund. Please explain.

En inglés, se escribe 'indifference' ;-)

For the question:

¡________ me has traído! ¡Qué lugar más espectacular!

The English translation that is given is:

Where have you brought me! What an amazing place!

It seems that the English is a bit ambiguous because it is phrased as a question but there is an exclamation mark rather than a questions so I don't know whether the original question in Spanish is intended to be a statement or a question.

Not a question, but I think a much better way to put this would be ú -> ue, meaning the "u" becomes "ue" when stressed. That holds across all tenses (also for voseo) and needs no special cases at all (assuming the usual ge -> gue to keep the g sound from getting mangled). Turns it into a single simple fact to remember.

In the example below, why is it 'aprovechó' and not 'se aprovechó de'? It seems quite a negative context to me, and the context even seems to be leading us towards using the reflexive form by saying 'el muy egoísta'. 

Rafa, [being] such an idiot, took advantage of the moment to break up with me. : Rafa, el muy egoísta, ___ la ocasión para romper conmigo.

Sigo pensando and Continúo pensando… am I misunderstanding? How is continúo an option?

Part of a sentence in the above exercise says "Donde se encerraba a los enemigos del castillo" Should encerraba not be plural i.e. encerraban? Is it singular because " a los enemigos" is indirect? I'm confused. Why not fueron encerrados?