Why are there pronouns attached to the verbs in the first three examples but not in the remaining examples?
The first and third examples are reflexive (which explains those), but what about the second one ("comerlos")? Thanks.
That example meaning "ready to eat" is using "los" at the end because you can add the pronoun "them" as well as just using it without:
"Los melocotones están para comer."
The peaches are ready to eat.
"Los melocotones están para comerlos"
The peaches are ready to eat them.
With any type of pronoun, if the verbal structure has an infinitive, you generally place the pronoun at the end attached to the infinitive.
Sometimes you can also place the pronoun right in the beginning of the verbal structure but not in this case with "estar para...".
I hope it clarified it.
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