As Marsha said, this sentence is translated in English in a different way to Spanish, so we say in Spanish: ¿Me pone un café, por favor? meaning literally "Do you put me a coffee, please?", but obviously this is not said this way in English; what you'd say here is "Can I have a coffee please? This is why the verb is conjugated in the 3rd person singular, because it agrees with "usted", which is the subject.
I hope this clarified it.
Yep. Because you are asking the waiter to give you a coffee using polite usted pone.
I would like to suggest adding to the lesson the explanation provided for the reason "pone" is the answer. Otherwise everyone is going to be left very mystified. Even with the "ustedes" hint, some might inquire about an error, or at least wonder how "poner" could be used for "could I have."
A note has been added to that specific test-question offering the literal translation in case of consufion.
Gracias y saludos
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