Spanish language Q&A Forum

la chica que le gusta - is ambivalent. It can mean both "the girl he likes" and "the girl who likes him"?

Hello, when I want to translate "they hit her" (occurring in the past for a period), it is translated as "le pegaban" or "la golpeaban".  Why is it an indirect object pronoun for pegar but direct for golpear?

Ella esta enfermo porque, ella quiere trabajar en en hospital grande, ella no le gusta trabajar en el clinic porque el clinic es muy pequeno.

Hi, I have a question concerning this text: 

"at the beginning of the 17th century,"

a comienzos del siglo XVII, 

why is the plural used here and not the singular? 

What rules/lesson pertain to this?

Thank you, NIcole

(A comment, not a question; I made a mistake in my translation, and I now see why I went wrong) >

I had to scratch my head a bit to see why there is no tilde in 'cuando' in the sentence [in the text]:
"Aún recuerdo cuando teníamos que revelar los carretes" [= I still remember when we had to develop rolls of film ...]

-- particularly after noticing the example: "No recuerdo cómo tomas el té ..." [= I can't remember how you take your tea ...] -- in: Difference between cómo and como in Spanish (with and without an accent)

I now realise that, in order to carry the tilde, the 'cuándo' or the 'cómo' must be part of an indirect question - which is indeed the case with the second example, but not the first.

Inma, Shui and Silvia - you do indeed provide us with interesting and useful exercises and explanations: Keep up the good work!

Explain formal and informal

Got an answer wrong on a test, they said it was ordenador, I was only familiar with it as computadora

I don't understand me gustan with first person.  Is this the formal version?

The second time she says "guía" she pronounces it "Este ría".  Is this common, and is there a rule for when to do this?  Thanks.