Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,084 questions • 9,965 answers • 1,040,460 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,084 questions • 9,965 answers • 1,040,460 learners
Hi,
I have just completed an A1 test where the missing word(s) were required in this sentence:
Siempre ________ confundo haciendo este ejercicio.
The hint was that the reflexive verb 'confundirse' was used.
My answer was 'Siempre yo me confundo ...' and was marked wrong. The correct answer dropped the 'yo'. Is that correct? Surely, both answers are correct, although mine may not be commonly spoken.
Best regards,
Colin
I thought long and hard before answering this onr. Although it fits the patter nor using sino que, if is a correctionof the first statement, the second statement is a contrast: something practical rather than something material. It is ambiguous depending on the circumstances and "pero" can be used following both positive and negative first statements.
Hola,
I came across this construction and I wasn't sure how to translate it. The use of the gerund does not follow any lesson I've seen. Is it similar to the "hacer/mandar + infinitive" construction?
Tienes un hijo criandose en el convento.
In the third sentence, would it be correct to say: "Mi mejor amiga se apunta rápidamente a estos programas."? Does it take something away from the meaning by saying it the way I wrote it?
In the fourth sentence, would the sentence be correct if I eliminate "son las que"?
I'm not trying to take anything away from the "style" of the writing or from the grammatical importance of the use of these relative pronouns, but I just want to know if the use of these relative pronouns is more about a certain style of writing or if they are grammatically necessary.
Thank you.
Amy
Hola,
Re: Se la había comprado.
How can one tell when reading or hearing this sentence, - if it was a standalone sentence - that the “se” means the plural “les” .
For example if this sentence is entered in Reverso: “Se la abía comprado.” they translate it as “ I had bought it for "him”. So there’s no way to know from the sentence that it was bought for “plural someones”.
Would this conundrum ever happen in real life, i.e. in converstion or writing, or would it always be clear from the preceding sentence?
Thank you for your patience,
Nicole
This page is missing an accent on the "vosotros" ending for -ir verbs:
https://progress.lawlessspanish.com/my-languages/spanish/glossary/42
I answered both questions, but did not see any opportunity to register my second answer - and see whether I had been correct.
A very enjoyable read-along exercise and then well worth browsing through to check new vocab. I loved the café chorreado! So, Inma now has the nickname, "Sara".
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level