Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola,

Am I right in thinking this construction uses the present tense to represent ‘have’ and the imperfect tense to represent ‘had’, and that no other tense is used?

Gracias,

Question  

Why is vosotros/cantais used in the second sentence?   vs  Tu siempre cantas la misma cancion?

Tu cantas opera  - (you sing opera)

Vosotras siempre cantais la misma cancion - (you always sing the same song)

PS:  accent marks won't work

In Mexico we do not use the vosotros form and I wrote you about it and you said you were working on not using it for Spanish in Mexico.  This lesson had half of the questions in this tense.  This is wasting my money and time to learn what I do not need.  Please give  your students a way to avoid counting these questions.  Thank you

hay diferencias, o ?son el mismo tiempo?

Could we have used the infinitive for "... so I don't catch a cold" ? >> [rendering it as: "... para no coger un resfriado"].

My grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin) implies that 'por' might also be permissible here: i.e. "... por no coger un resfriado" - when it means "out of a wish or a desire to not catch a cold". Thus, I am wondering if [when a negative is involved] - "por no ... +infinitive" might actually be more common than "para no...+ infinitive" ?

Suppose I wanted to say something like, "I wouldn't have minded if they got married, I was seeing someone else", or "I didn't care if the wrecked their's appetite with ice cream, I wasn't going to make dinner anyway" is there no combination of tenses that would admit the use o "por mí que"? 

Hola,

I think “les” is an indirect object pronoun in this phrase. I thought a direct object pronoun would be used because it is “we helped them.” We are the subject they are the direct object. Can you explain?

Many thanks. John

Explain formal and informal

I am at 100% on A0 and at 13% on A1. My entire study plan is full of A0 lessons that are already at 100%. Has anyone else had this happen?