Spanish language Q&A Forum

I have a question regarding the following excerpt:

"Both "¿Por qué no...?" and "Mejor no..." followed by El Presente are more frequently used in speech than their equivalent forms using the imperative:

Vayamos a la playa.
Let's go to the beach! (affirmative command)

No vayamos a la playa.
Let's not go to the beach! (negative command)"

My understanding is that whilst 'vayamos' is the negative imperative form of 'ir', 'vamos' is the affirmative form, contrary to the above.

Is there a situation where we would use the subjunctive 'vayamos a la playa' instead of the affirmative imperative 'vamos a la playa' to express the same command?

Many thanks,

Stu

HI Inma 

I'm not sure why the answer for this is conjugated singular (ha gustado) & not plural (han gustado);

Siempre me ________ leer autobiografías de gente famosa.

Thank you.

it seems to be a typo in the above exercise. It says "damos" instead of "vamos"

In the quiz, I got the sentence

Antes de que tú digas nada, .... ( before you say anything )

Why is 'nada' here ? Can it be 'algo' ?

Another example from the other lesson is, though I don't remember the exact phase but it's like

No creo que hayan llegado todavía.

The original phase to be denied should be 'han llegado ya'. Again, why it changed to 'todavía' ?

I agree that whole expression has something negative, which hasn't happened yet. But I'm confused, because the phase in 'que' is totally affirmative.

So the expression in 'que' isn't independent from its use ? And how ?

How do we know if a noun is masculine or feminine in Spanish if it a new word to us?  Is there a clue I am missing or is it just a guess?

Why is there 'le' for 'Tú le das el biberón a tu hijo' but not for 'Él da una carta a su hermana', 'Ustedes dan mucho dinero a la gente pobre', 'Vosotras dais los billetes de avión a la azafata', and 'Nosotros damos dinero a organizaciones de caridad'?