Spanish language Q&A Forum

In this question (I waited for them), it appears to me that "them" is an indirect object pronoun. Below, Gruff, a Kwiziq team member says this. However, this question is answered by using a direct object pronoun. I got it wrong when I used the indirect pronoun. Which is it? I would appreciate having this clarified as I keep getting this question and I don't know how to answer it. Thanks,

Hola Shui,

I'm a bit confused with the future "podrá". I would expected "podría" or "pudiera". Can you please explain? Is there a lesson about hypothetical clauses?

Muchas gracias

Ελισάβετ

This was great. Thanks so much to introducing me to Aguas de Marzo.

Las pronunciaciones de los ejemplos españoles con signos de interrogación no suenan correctos. Este ejemplo en la lección, "Conjugate regular -ar verbs in El Pretérito Indefinido", "¿Ayudaste a tu madre?", la pronunciación no tiene la inflexión apropiado por una pregunta.

¿Tengo razón?

En este ejemplo la pronunciación no quiere apropiado inflexión por una interrogación pregunta

Hola Inma,

I would have thought that estar would be used here rather than ser. On reflection I imagine that ser was used because the emphasis is on the first marriage, rather than the emotional state of the person talking.

Is that the case or ....?

Saludos

John

Voy a perderme el viaje a Cuba a menos que ________ un milagro. Why is the answer " occura" if it follows an adverbial clause. Shouldn't it be in the subjunctive form?

These tickets for the tennis match are cheap. : ___ entradas para el partido de tenis son baratas.

The key word here to me is "These".  The answer of "Estas entradas" is marked as wrong and should be "Las" -- which would be "The tickets for ..."   

This looks like a mistake to me.

When working through the exercise, "En la televisión anunciaron nuevas medidas económicas …" was accepted as correct, but in the final version [which gets read to us at the end], "En la televisión anunciaban nuevas medidas económicas" was preferred... > This is not really a criticism or a question, because a good case can be made for each of those^ tenses - but you might like to cover that point to reassure us.

Hello,

I was wondering why the sentence "in the evening..." is translated with "por laS tardeS...". Why is it plural here? Would "por la tarde" also be correct?

Thanks!