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6,077 questions • 9,937 answers • 1,032,164 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,077 questions • 9,937 answers • 1,032,164 learners
Yesterday in a store I said to the owner "tiene todo." I was trying to say "you have everything."
He replied (I think) "tengo de todo." I wasn't sure if he was correcting me or not.
Did I get my question right? What was he saying?
Thanks so much, Tony
According to the kwiz, there are 2 correct answers to the question:
haya ganado ( my answer)
ganara ( imperfect subjunctive)
The page on the subjunctive does not address using these subjunctives interchangeably. I learned that when the subjunctive trigger is in the present tense ( no está seguro) and the event being considered is in the past ( won the competition), the present perfect subjunctive is called for. Do you have a lesson the the distinction?
I just reviewed the A1 lesson on veces/vez in which "sometimes" equals "algunas veces," but in examples above, "sometimes" equals "a veces." Is there a difference? Is "a veces" simply a more convenient way of saying "algunas veces?" Thank you.
In the initial table of conjugation, I feel that ‘estudiar’ is a poor choice of example for the ‘ar’ verbs. Because this particular verb happens to have an ‘i’ before the infinitive ending, it blurs the differentiation between the conjugation of the ‘ar’ verbs and the ‘er’ and ‘ir’ verbs. It would be instantly clearer if a verb such as ‘hablar’ were chosen as the example.
When should we use pues versus porque? In the text it was translated as "because" = "pues". Thank you!
Hi. Why is there ya pague and not ya he pagado? Is it not latin american Spanish?
Your example is:
Cuando os tumbéis en la playa poneos la crema solar.When you lie down on the beach put some suncream on.Why isn't 'poned' used here? It's an imperative command isn't it? Is it because of the 'OS' tacked on the end?Find your Spanish level for FREE
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