Spanish language Q&A Forum

I had never heard that before.So, I can retract my question. 

Leaving aside the issue of what you call this tense, I had trouble because I thought that the "perfect" tenses corresponded more closely with English in the sense of use of the auxiliary verb. It seems that most of the examples given show English translations with the auxiliary verb, but not all of them. So what is the difference between "No le dije" and "No le he dicho"? It would seem that the first translates to "I didn't tell him" and the second to "I haven't told him." But the examples seem to conflate the two.

But in this specific example of the Preterito Perfecto Subjuntivo....

Cuando hayas hecho tus deberes puedes ir a jugar fuera. 

Is it incorrect to also use.....

Cuando has hecho tus deberes puedes ir a jugar fuera. 

Just curious if they are interchangeable in their use. Thank you.

Nelson

Can you please explain why there is an accent on the e in imperative of 3rd person of sentir.

To me the syllabification prior to adding the se are sien.te. As the word ends in neither an a,s or n the accent falls on the last syllable ie “te”.  Therefore, after the se is added should the accent not fall on the té?

In the test question about Pideselas.. The aswers the computer listed were:

1. Order them for them

2. Order them for her

3. Order them for him.

I feel #2 and #3 answers are wrong. Would you please check of that.  I could be wrong myself.  Thank you.

Please explain why "Me gusta la de rojo" instead of el.

Los de manana seran mas fresco instead of Las......

Thank you

In the first sentence, is it possible to omit the “de” ? ie, “escoger entre todas las fiestas” ?

If so, does the nuance of the meaning change at all?