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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,077 questions • 9,937 answers • 1,032,165 learners
This is not the focus of the lesson, but in the above example I would have expected to see “la pierna.” Is “mi” more common with this particular body part, or is it just adding some kind of emphasis here?
The Larousse Spanish Dictionary shows: -3. (en frases) ¡a mí qué! so what?, why should I care?; para mí: (yo creo) as far as I'm concerned, in my opinion; por mí: as far as I'm concerned; por mí, no hay inconveniente it's fine by me
How do we get to the: para mí: I have a feeling that ?
Even after the lengthy explanation it's still unclear.
Por mí que cierren el cine. why should I care if the close down the cinema =Por mí si ellos cierren el cine?
No?
Magdalena = muffins? Crei que muffins se traduce como "mollette". Y por que "magdalena? Que una referencia a la santa?
At first glance, I thought efectivo is an adjective (meaning effective) but it actually means cash. Is there an obvious ending to nouns in spanish like there is in english?
When you say that we use "por culpa de" for something with a negative result and use the example as given above " por culpa de mi novio soy la mujer más feliz del mundo........" Why do you say that this sentence has a negative result?
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