Spanish language Q&A Forum

Would 2001 years be los dos miles y uno año or would mil still be singular.

As far as I can see, the text doesn’t discuss ‘hasta’ which is listed as an option in the answers but marks as wrong. My dictionary seems to have some examples where ‘hasta’ is used for movement towards a place. What is the distinction?

"It can be used in the singular, for example se tarda, se tardó or in the plural, for example se tardan, se tardaron. Se tardó dos horas en llegar. = Se tardaron dos horas en llegar. It took two hours to arrive."

So both examples mean precisely the same thing? Is there a situation where the meaning would change?

Esta guerra habrá de acabar con la esperanza de paz de la gente.This war will put an end to people's hope for peace.

No te preocupes por lo que nunca ha de pasar.Don't worry about what will never happen.

Why is this second example not taking "haber" in the future tense also? Or is it just a bad English translation?

I'm sorry, but I believe this to be a misleading question. "Le encanta jugando con sus hijos." = "She loves playing with her children." She loves to play with her children", would be "Le encanta jugar con sus hijos." I feel like I'm being penalized for speaking too much Spanish.

Hola,

In the introduction it states ...."all the other endings are the same as regular er verbs íste, ímos, ísteis."

Is this correct? Aren't the ending of regular er verbs iste, imos and isteis all without the accent?

Or am i missing something?

Thanks.

In the question:

They will be very cold when they go to Scotland next December.

It seems to me that this is a quite certain plan, like one of the examples here: ‘ Cuando voy de vacaciones a Tenerife me hospedo en el hotel Olimpia.’

So I thought the answer should be in the indicative:

Tendrán mucho frío cuando irán a Escocia el próximo diciembre.

But the correct answer was in the subjunctive:

Tendrán mucho frío cuando vayan a Escocia el próximo diciembre.

Why is that? Is it a mistake?