Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,819 questions • 9,535 answers • 952,907 learners
Let me take a look at that...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,819 questions • 9,535 answers • 952,907 learners
Purpose:
Te regalo mi pulsera nueva con tal de que me dejes en paz.
I [will] give you my new bracelet so that you leave me alone.
Condition:
Te regalo mi pulsera nueva con tal de que me dejes en paz.
I [will] give you my new bracelet as long as you leave me alone.
What's the difference between:
Hace ocho semanas que estudié.
y
Hace ocho semanas estudié.
I understand the first sentence from this lesson, but is the second one just incorrect or does it mean something else?
In the 1st person and 3rd person singular in the given examples I notice that the words from the verb 'to be able to', i.e 'could' and 'couldn't' are used. In sentences like these would we just have to be aware that these words are implied?
Thank you
Clari.
In the initial table of conjugation, I feel that ‘estudiar’ is a poor choice of example for the ‘ar’ verbs. Because this particular verb happens to have an ‘i’ before the infinitive ending, it blurs the differentiation between the conjugation of the ‘ar’ verbs and the ‘er’ and ‘ir’ verbs. It would be instantly clearer if a verb such as ‘hablar’ were chosen as the example.
This is one of the sentences for this lesson:
Yo no como nunca pescado, ¿y tú? (I never eat fish, and you?)
This sounds awkward to me. Shouldn't it be
Yo nunca como pescado. ? (Without 'no' and putting nunca before the verb)
I have just started learning about Preterito indefinido and found that one question in the test required a preterito imperfecto answer which I have not yet learned. It is rather confusing .
I feel that the translation of the sentence into English was incorrect for the tense requested and confused me. The clue was pretérito perfecto as well as the translation saw. Pretérito conjugation of ver for ellos is vieron or “saw”, but pretérito perfecto would be Han visto or “have seen”. Please don’t make it confusing for us!
I do not understand why this is tercer not tercero as the correct answer as there is not a masculine singular preceding i
Hay una errata en el ________ párrafo.There is a typo in the third paragraph.tercerotrestercertreceLeaving aside the issue of what you call this tense, I had trouble because I thought that the "perfect" tenses corresponded more closely with English in the sense of use of the auxiliary verb. It seems that most of the examples given show English translations with the auxiliary verb, but not all of them. So what is the difference between "No le dije" and "No le he dicho"? It would seem that the first translates to "I didn't tell him" and the second to "I haven't told him." But the examples seem to conflate the two.
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level