Spanish language Q&A Forum

I was wondering if there was a reply to his question below:

"didn't need to (infinitive) & needn't have (past participle) are used to express the lack of necessity in the past, ..."

Leaving aside the issue of what you call this tense, I had trouble because I thought that the "perfect" tenses corresponded more closely with English in the sense of use of the auxiliary verb. It seems that most of the examples given show English translations with the auxiliary verb, but not all of them. So what is the difference between "No le dije" and "No le he dicho"? It would seem that the first translates to "I didn't tell him" and the second to "I haven't told him." But the examples seem to conflate the two.

1. I find it difficult to think in terms of the Imperfect subjunctive in examples which allude to an event in the future, e.g. "Ojalá nosotros viniésemos el año que viene"... Could we also say "Ojalá nosotros vengamos el año que viene"?

2. [A comment rather than a question]: I personally prefer the "-s-" option for constructing the Imperfect Subjunctive because there is less chance of confusing it with a future construction.

Pretty much a waste of listening time  . . .

I used 'a donde' as on of three possible answers, but was marked wrong:

IMPORTANT 

For the long forms adónde and adonde, it is also perfectly acceptable to write them as two separate words:

For example:

three times the same example

Quiz question: Ojalá ________ menos egoísmo en el mundo. ?

I wish there were less selfishness in the world.

(HINT: Use "haber" in El Imperfecto de Subjuntivo)

In the above I answered “qué hubiera” and got it wrong, where the correct answer was “hubiera.” 

However, in a separate section, there was an explanation that “qué can be added after ojalá without changing the meaning.”

Can you clarify whether my “qué hubiera” answer should have been correct?