Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,015 questions • 9,828 answers • 1,013,649 learners
Clever stuff happening!
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,015 questions • 9,828 answers • 1,013,649 learners
OK. I get it...I think! It is because the first clause expresses "emotion". Therefore it seems to be more a function of formality, a rule, not a matter of doubt. Because, I could be in fact happy that you travelled the world. Right? Or, is there another way to convey that "I am pleased that..." as fact and not use the subjunctive?
I appologize if I appear to be running in circles, and chasing my tail! I greatly appreciate your imput!
Why is it "Yo fui el primero DE mi clase" and not "Yo fui el primero EN mi clase" for "I was first in my class?" Is there any difference or is DE also acceptable?
How come it is tiene instead of tienes ? I'm thinking plural...being it says: cosas bonitas... Thank you!
Is it my imagination, or is the speaker saying "yo soy debajo" instead of "yo soy bajo"?
On the question:
Mamá, ________
Why wouldn't "cómo está" be a correct answer? Wouldn't it be formal when speaking to a parent?
Thank you!
I am afraid I didn't meet , as yet, this expression in English and thus, I don't know its meaning. So, can't say if it is "por" or "para" ..
(probably the Spanish sentence has a well defined meaning but, with my poor Spanish, can't say what is this meaning..
Inma, I just wanted to say that this lesson is the best on the subject. No other place have I heard/seen the reference of "seeing the .......". This really helped me a lot to "get" these very interesting tenses. Thank you for sharing your insight/knowledge with us and your patience!
It's translated let me tell you. So why isn't there a me before let?
The following was a post made 11 months ago. It seems the problem is not completely fixed Inma as the same thing has just happened to me.
Uh no. So in one lesson you guys said calor was feminine. Even though in three years of Spanish I've always only seen it as masculine. But in fact it can be either according to the RAE. Now in this lesson I marked it as feminine and you guys say I'm wrong. So you guys need to fix this answer or at least be consistent.
Like011 months agoShareInmaKwiziq team memberHola A
Yes, that was a mistake on our part and I just fixed it.
If you see something unusual you can send us a message and we will be very happy to sort it out : )
Can I ask you that when a thing and a thing (singular noun) or a thing and things (singular noun and plural noun)... followed verb "gustar" like listing, gusta or gustan is right?
For example:
1. Me (gusta/gustan) el chocolate y la golosina.
2. Me (gusta/gustan) el chocolate y las golosinas.
3. Me (gusta/gustan) las golosinas y el chocolate.
Thank u so much
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level