Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi Inma,

This lesson says that sometimes haber in the imperfect subjunctive can replace haber in the conditional; but doesn't say when. I had a tutor in Mexico who claimed (that least in some cases) the construction had to be hubiera....hubiera; whereas a Mexican friend said the construction is always hubiera.....habría or vice versa depending on which clause comes first. This lesson seems to say you can replace habría with hubiera in this construction if you feel like it. Can you clarify this for me, please?

Buenas tardes,

I hope you don’t mind me asking this here since my question is not regarding Decir in the Condicional Simple but rather the usage of ‘eso mismo’ attached to the quiz question here. 

I am puzzled by the following:

“Yo diría eso mismo”. 

Could you explain the ‘eso’ here please? Could I still use ‘lo mismo’ or ‘el mismo’ here instead of ‘eso’?

Te ________ hasta que me aburrí y me fui.I was waiting for you until I got bored and left.

Twice now I have entered 'estaba' but the correct answer is shown to be 'estuve'. I thought that when an action is either interrupted or where there is no specific beginning or end, it's the imperfect. Can you please clarify? Thank you.

Leaving aside the issue of what you call this tense, I had trouble because I thought that the "perfect" tenses corresponded more closely with English in the sense of use of the auxiliary verb. It seems that most of the examples given show English translations with the auxiliary verb, but not all of them. So what is the difference between "No le dije" and "No le he dicho"? It would seem that the first translates to "I didn't tell him" and the second to "I haven't told him." But the examples seem to conflate the two.

Though most of the English translations here use the future tense, as an American English native speaker it sounds stilted to me. I would normally say, for example, "I hope you come out with us tonight", "I hope they're very happy in their marriage.", and "My brother and I hope that you have lots of luck with the job." To me, this form, which is our very subtle subjunctive present tense, is a more natural translation from the Spanish present subjunctive than the English translations in future tense here.

I understand your explanation of the usage of this pair, but cannot relate them to the sentences that you set and so consequently keep getting marked wrong. It is very unlikely that I will ever do much writing in Spanish, so it is not very important to me. Unfortunately, the consequence of getting them wrong means that you keep on setting new ones on the same subject. A vicious circle. Can you please stop setting them for me so that I can move on and learn new things. The same applies to que/qué

Texto muy bueno y fácil para principiantes. La misma imagen hermosa con los cines de verano existe en mi país, Grecia.

With "tener que + infinitive" do you have to attach the pronoun to the infinitive or can it also be placed before "tener"?

Example: Tengo que lavarme las manos.

Me tengo que lavar las manos.

Are both sentences correct or is only the first sentence correct?