Spanish language Q&A Forum

I was wondering if there was a reply to his question below:

"didn't need to (infinitive) & needn't have (past participle) are used to express the lack of necessity in the past, ..."

Is "navidad" typically used in plural, like in this example?

Estas serán las primeras navidades sin Cristina. -These will be the first Christmas without Cristina.

Also, the translation should be "This will be..."

three times the same example

•Why do we have to use 'pero' in the first sentence?

•In the hint provided, it was given that tardar tiempo = take long, then in the answer key, why is 'mucho' used?

Leaving aside the issue of what you call this tense, I had trouble because I thought that the "perfect" tenses corresponded more closely with English in the sense of use of the auxiliary verb. It seems that most of the examples given show English translations with the auxiliary verb, but not all of them. So what is the difference between "No le dije" and "No le he dicho"? It would seem that the first translates to "I didn't tell him" and the second to "I haven't told him." But the examples seem to conflate the two.

Your English original is: "the tango is one of the most sensual dances that exists in the world". During the course of the exercise, I felt that "exists" should really be plural, so I put "existen" in my translation answer - and that was accepted as correct. However, your final Spanish version still makes it singular.

Text reads: "A pesar de que solo tres mujeres resultaron elegidas"........shouldn't this be "a pesar de que sólo tres mujeres resultaron eligidas"?