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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,815 questions • 9,522 answers • 952,549 learners
Hi room
Why do we use por que and not para que in the sentence 'Puse todo de mi parte por que no termináramos separados'
It's translated let me tell you. So why isn't there a me before let?
Hola,
I thought assumption about the past (must have + verb) was expressed by means of DEBE (Deber in El Presented) + Infinitivo Compuesto, however the following examples refute it:
Los chicos han debido de beber bastante porque huelen a alcohol.
They boys must have drunk quite a lot as they smell of alcohol.
El tren debió de llegar sobre las cuatro y media.
The train must have arrived at about four thirty.
Could you please clarify this point, because I'm feeling a bit confused
Quiz question: Ojalá ________ menos egoísmo en el mundo. ?
I wish there were less selfishness in the world.
(HINT: Use "haber" in El Imperfecto de Subjuntivo)
In the above I answered “qué hubiera” and got it wrong, where the correct answer was “hubiera.”
However, in a separate section, there was an explanation that “qué can be added after ojalá without changing the meaning.”
Can you clarify whether my “qué hubiera” answer should have been correct?
Ellos proveyeron de alimentos a los damnificados.
They provided food to the victims.
Where does the 'de' come from here?
ThanksI'm confused about what the difference is between these two words.
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