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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,888 questions • 9,631 answers • 965,983 learners
RE" ¿Eres de Inglaterra?
Are you from England? (you=tú)
Hello, I hope you and the team are all doing well and keeping healthy!I have a question on the above:I'm suppose that means are you a native of England. But let's suppose that person came from England, but the person was visiting England and coming from there, would he/she still say:" Soy de Inglaterra"? Or would he/she have to totally rephrase it, and explain that they were visiting. How would you then state that you're from England, as you came from there.Thank you,NicoleComo / cuando / donde / quien with indicative or subjunctive in Spanish
I find it confusing. there is another note on this to indicate subjunctive with wherever, whoever etc.
is both the same thing with different ways of expressing or it is not the same thing?
call us whenever you get there
in this note, it says = llámame lleguen cuando lleguen
based on another notes, can i say ' llámame cuando lleguen' ?
are both the same?
Hello,
I have come across this: "haber hecho" as in:
"After having done this... Después de haber hecho esto... "
and searched here for this structure and found this lesson, but not this form for "haber hecho" nor did I find anything online except one site calling it an idiom.
I was wondering what part of speech "haber hecho" is, I can't find it as a tense and have not been able to find its grammatical term. I don't think this is an "idiom". Thanks for your help in claryfing this.
Nicole
¡Hola!
Could you tell me why it is subjuntivo that follows the expression:
"No dudo de que..."?
The full extract is:
"Antes de dormir pásabamos un buen rato por el taller del Belga, un anciano pavoroso que apareció en Aracataca después de la primers guerra mundial, y no dudo de que fuera belga por el recuerdo que tengo de sus acento aturdido y sus nostalgias de navegante" ("VIVIR PARA CONTARLA" by Gabriel García Márquez)
Doesn't "No dudo de que..." imply certainty?
Regards,
Alexander
I'm very confused by the explanation regarding the use of indirect and direct object pronouns with hacer + infinitive. The lesson says that indirect object pronouns are used with intransitive verbs, but shows direct object pronouns (lo) with the intransitive verb "arrodillarse". The lesson then says that direct object pronouns are used with transitive verbs, but then shows indirect object pronouns (les) with the transitive verb "pedir (pardón)". Is this a mistake, or am I misunderstanding?
I'm also confused by the difference between the example in the lesson and the example sentence further below:
The lesson teaches:
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor"
He made them apologise to the teacher.
But the examples sentences below show:
Los ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.
I am completely confused :(
In the first two egs given "Tengo escritas veinte paginas de mi futura novela" y "Tienes pintadas dos habitaciones. Falta una mas para terminar", why is tener + participio used instead of Llevar + participio? Since the repetition of the action is going to continue.
Thanks.
Vrunda
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