Spanish language Q&A Forum

I would like to ak why is the accent in the audio on the second syllable?

Why is it "fue (indefinido) muy emocionante" but "mis contrincantes eran (imperfecto) muy bueno"?

And why is it "fue muy emocionante" rather than "estaba / estuve muy emocionante"?  There is a lesson entitled "Using estar (not ser) when talking about emotions".

Sorry-

Forgot to include 'dieron' in the translation, but question remains the same.

The answer is ‘los’ but since the construction is ‘ver a’ and the prepositions are already used for the names, I don’t see why it is not the indirect object pronoun ‘les’ required. 

Can I use it to say: we were hopinng that he would do ...?

I think I saw an earlier lesson when you use bastante and other words only in a singular form. But I can't find the other lesson. Hopefully you can direct me to the lesson :)

It seems like many of these questions can be interpreted either way. In English, the two are often interchangeable in a given sentence depending what the speaker wishes to say. Although we have many things in common... OR Even if we have many things in common...

How do we know which translation to provide--subjunctive or indicative?

Hi, why is terminarse (vs terminar) used here: “no quería que se terminara”, (I didn’t want it to end). Thanks a lot,

Shirley.