llamar with indirect or direct objectsi read from one of the question asked before in one of the grammar lesson, and it is confirmed that llamar is a transitive verb and takes direct object but comes with a preposition A because it is personal a. llamar + a + alguien.
But then i also came across llamar a la puerta for example. why is there a preposition A?
or did i get it wrong that it is not personal A but a fixed expression with llamar + a + any direct objects?
voy a llamar a Juan = voy a llamarlo, voy a llamar a la puerta = voy a llamarla.
But i did come across sentences that do not use preposition a for llamar.
le llamo idiota a juan - i called juan idiot. is this correct?
Other than calling people directly like telephoning or shouting for them, we can also call them names. is this where there wont be preposition A?
sorry for my errors as i am still not familiar with using the llamar verb.
Luis told me where he had gone on holiday. : Luis me dijo ___ había ido de vacaciones.
The stated answer is “dónde” (with an accent), but this usage seems to be that of a relative pronoun. What am I missing? Why is it “dónde” (with an accent)
Hello! I'm not understanding why these cardinal points sometimes have a "r" and some have a "d" in the name (as bolded). Can you explain this further? ie: El sureste as south-east makes sense (literally south+east), but what is sudeste??
El sureste/sudeste = south-east
El suroeste/sudoeste = south-west
El noreste/nordeste = north-east
El noroeste = north-west
What's the difference between:
Hace ocho semanas que estudié.
y
Hace ocho semanas estudié.
I understand the first sentence from this lesson, but is the second one just incorrect or does it mean something else?
I've been saying "bolsa" for a year and a half but I just saw a lesson example that used "bolso." A search showed many instances of both. Is it a regional difference, or is there a grammatical rule in play?
Shouldn't it be se viste instead of viste?
Hello,
I am confused. I am trying to sort out the diffences but I don't see it.
For example, in the sentences: both mean: It is good that you study every afternoon.
Es bueno que estudies todas las tardes.
Está bien que estudies todas las tardes.
Es + bueno [adjective]
Está + bien [adverb]
Can you show the relationships for each?
Any difference at all in the individual meaning?
And why would you use one over the other? And under what circumstances?
Any other lessons to clarify this?
As you can tell, I’m confused! Help. J
i read from one of the question asked before in one of the grammar lesson, and it is confirmed that llamar is a transitive verb and takes direct object but comes with a preposition A because it is personal a. llamar + a + alguien.
But then i also came across llamar a la puerta for example. why is there a preposition A?
or did i get it wrong that it is not personal A but a fixed expression with llamar + a + any direct objects?
voy a llamar a Juan = voy a llamarlo, voy a llamar a la puerta = voy a llamarla.
But i did come across sentences that do not use preposition a for llamar.
le llamo idiota a juan - i called juan idiot. is this correct?
Other than calling people directly like telephoning or shouting for them, we can also call them names. is this where there wont be preposition A?
sorry for my errors as i am still not familiar with using the llamar verb.
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