Spanish language Q&A Forum

I was reading this sentence:

The cat walks out the window.

El gato sale a la calle por la ventana.

It seemed to me that this means more like: The cat go out through

the window.  So I put it into Google, which gave: 

Google: The cat goes outside through the window. Then tried another site:

Reverso: The cat walks out the window.and they translated it as: The cat walks out the window.

I would appreciate getting a clarification on this.  Thank you.

In the test question: ¿Quién es ________ de tus amigos? (Who is the most generous of your friends?)

I incorrectly assumed that because "de tus amigos" doesn't specify the gender of "Quien es" in Spanish, that "lo" would be appropriate rather than "el" (correct answer). Because only the response can reveal the gender e.g. - "Carla es la más generosa de mis amigos" o "Jorge es el más generoso de mis amigos". In other words, why is "el" correct in this case even if the "quién es" might turn out to be female? (I did notice that the hint was "generous = generoso" but (falsely?) assumed it was being generic rather than specifying un amigo masculino).

Can you please clarify?

Thank you

Usually the conditional tense adds "would" to the verb. E.g. comería, would eat; habría, would have; vendría, would come, etc. But "should" is not the same as "would". It implies a duty or obligation, whereas "would" does not.

So debería etc. seems to be an exception because it means "should" not "would"!

Being in a specific location "They"  (Implicit in venden),  could be the shop owners or staff and it would not be impersonal.  I know it fits the format of the lesson but in this situation, I would have thought "se venden" would have been a more impersonal expression with no possibiloity of ambiguity.

I'm very confused by the explanation regarding the use of indirect and direct object pronouns with hacer + infinitive. The lesson says that indirect object pronouns are used with intransitive verbs, but shows direct object pronouns (lo) with the intransitive verb "arrodillarse". The lesson then says that direct object pronouns are used with transitive verbs, but then shows indirect object pronouns (les) with the transitive verb "pedir (pardón)". Is this a mistake, or am I misunderstanding?

I'm also confused by the difference between the example in the lesson and the example sentence further below:

The lesson teaches: 
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor"
He made them apologise to the teacher.

But the examples sentences below show:

Los ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.
I am completely confused :(