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6,088 questions • 9,977 answers • 1,043,398 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,088 questions • 9,977 answers • 1,043,398 learners
I don't understand why the English translations of the historical present are not in the English historical present. For example, "Venezuelan President Hugo Chavez dies in 2013." would be perfectly acceptable in a historical context. To use the past tense in the English examples is just confusing, since the point of the lesson is that the same tense exists in Spanish as well.
Hi Inma,
This lesson says that sometimes haber in the imperfect subjunctive can replace haber in the conditional; but doesn't say when. I had a tutor in Mexico who claimed (that least in some cases) the construction had to be hubiera....hubiera; whereas a Mexican friend said the construction is always hubiera.....habría or vice versa depending on which clause comes first. This lesson seems to say you can replace habría with hubiera in this construction if you feel like it. Can you clarify this for me, please?
I noticed these two sentences used the preposition 'a' instead of 'que' in these sentences. Is there a reason why?
Las ventas fueron superiores a los costes.
The sales were higher than the expenses.
Los costes fueron inferiores a las ventas.
The expenses were lower than the sales.
The time is last month, why don't we use Era posible and lead to other hubiera PP?
Justin
There was a lot of food at the party. (completed action in the past)
Había mucha comida en la fiesta.
There was a lot of food at the party. (action not completed in the past, descriptive)
Which action is (not) completed in the past? The party? What if we add "ayer" at the end of the examples? Will is change anything? Is the process of eating food meant at completed? So "hubo" in the first example means that food was over at the party?
Please help me to understand the differences in these examples. Thank you.Find your Spanish level for FREE
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